tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-47482402693422036892023-11-15T09:06:23.762-08:00CCNA 4 AnswersCCNA 4 Answers, CCNA 1 Version 4.0 Answers, CCNA 2 Version 4.0 Answers, CCNA 3 Version 4.0 Answers, CCNA 4 Version 4.0 Answers, CCNA 1 Final Version 4.0 Answers, CCNA 2 Final Version 4.0 Answers, CCNA 3 Final Version 4.0 Answers, CCNA 4 Final Version 4.0 AnswersUnknownnoreply@blogger.comBlogger45125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-88230871562932368272009-10-20T10:56:00.005-07:002009-10-20T10:56:58.095-07:00CCNA 4 Final 4 Version 4.0 Answers1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)<br />• improper placement of enterprise level servers<br />• addition of hosts to a physical segment<br />replacement of hubs with workgroup switches<br />• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications<br />migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN<br /><br />2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)<br />• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices<br />a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices<br />• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet<br />a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer<br />• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console<br /><br />3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?<br />hold-down timers<br />poison reverse<br />• spanning tree protocol<br />time to live<br />split horizon protocol<br /><br />4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)<br />CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.<br />• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.<br />The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.<br />SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.<br />SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.<br />• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols<br /><br />5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a 'Password Required but None Set' message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?<br /> <br /><br />Router(config)# line console 0<br />Router(config-line)# login<br />Router(config-line)# password cisco<br />• Router(config)# line vty 0 4<br />Router(config-line)# login<br />Router(config-line)# password cisco<br /><br />Router(config)# line virtual terminal<br />Router(config-line)# enable login<br />Router(config-line)# password cisco<br /><br />Router(config)# line vty 0 4<br />Router(config-line)# enable secret<br />Router(config-line)# password cisco<br />Router(config)# enable secret cisco<br />Router(config)# enable cisco<br /><br />6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?<br />low processor overhead<br />poison reverse<br />routing loops<br />split horizon<br />• shortest-path first calculations<br /><br />7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?<br />The configuration register is set for 0x2100.<br />The configuration register is set for 0x2101.<br />The configuration register is set for 0x2102.<br />• The configuration register is set for 0x2142.<br />Boot system commands are not configured.<br />Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM<br />Nederst på formularen<br /><br />8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)<br />• show ip interface<br />show ip route<br />show processes<br />• show running-config<br />show cdp neighbor<br />• show access-lists<br /><br />9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)<br />destination address and wildcard mask<br />• source address and wildcard mask<br />subnet mask and wildcard mask<br />access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699<br />• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999<br /><br />10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)<br />most<br />• host<br />all<br />• any<br />some<br />sum<br /><br />11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).<br />3 collision domains<br />• 3 broadcast domains<br />5 broadcast domains<br />• 9 collision domains<br />10 collision domains<br />13 collision domains<br /><br />12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?<br />192.168.16.63/27<br />192.168.16.158/27<br />192.168.16.192/27<br />192.168.16.113/30<br />192.168.16.145/30<br />• 192.168.16.193/30<br /><br />13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?<br />• prevents Layer 2 loops<br />prevents routing loops on a router<br />creates smaller collision domains<br />creates smaller broadcast domains<br />allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates<br /><br />14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?<br />activates the OSPF neighboring process<br />• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process<br />provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process<br />streamlines and speeds up the convergence process<br /><br />15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?<br />Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.<br />• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.<br />Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.<br />It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding<br /><br />16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?<br /><br />Router1(config)# interface loopback 1<br />Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1<br />Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0<br /><br />Router1(config-if)# loopback 1<br />Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1<br />Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0<br /><br />Router1(config-if)# loopback 1<br />Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0<br /><br />• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1<br />Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255<br /><br />17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)<br />EIGRP<br />OSPF<br />• RIP v1<br />RIP v2<br />• IGRP<br /><br />18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?<br /><br />SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1<br />SW1(config-if)# duplex full<br /><br />SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1<br />SW1(config-if)# full-duplex<br /><br />• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1<br />SW2(config-if)# duplex full<br /><br />SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1<br />SW2(config-if)# full-duplex<br /><br />19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?<br />EIGRP does not support VLSM.<br />The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.<br />The default bandwidth was used on the routers.<br />• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.<br /><br />20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?<br />Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.<br />Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.<br />Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.<br />• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully<br /><br />21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)<br />local router<br />local Frame Relay switch<br />• remote router<br />• remote Frame Relay switch<br />R3 has the following configuration:<br />R3# show running-config<br />--some output text omitted--<br />interface serial0/0<br />bandwidth 128<br />ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0<br />encapsulation frame-relay<br />frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast<br /><br />22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?<br />• No clock rate assigned.<br />There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.<br />An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.<br />The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword<br /><br />23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)<br />• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.<br />The LMI type must always be manually configured.<br />The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.<br />The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.<br />• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.<br />• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE<br /><br />24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?<br />• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.<br />The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.<br />A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.<br />The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured<br /><br />25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)<br />The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.<br />The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.<br />• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.<br />• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.<br />Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.<br />It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR<br /><br />26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?<br />show interface bri0/0<br />show isdn active<br />debug isdn q921<br />• debug isdn q931<br />debug ppp negotiation<br />debug ppp authentication<br /><br />27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)<br />• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.<br />PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.<br />PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.<br />• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.<br />• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection<br /><br />28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)<br />establishes identities with a two-way handshake<br />• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities<br />control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events<br />• transmits login information in encrypted format<br />• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks<br />makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session<br /><br />29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?<br />They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.<br />They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.<br />They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.<br />• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link<br /><br />30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)<br />192.168.14.8<br />• 192.168.14.16<br />192.168.14.24<br />• 192.168.14.32<br />192.168.14.148<br />• 192.168.14.208<br /><br />31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?<br />• 1) fast forward<br />2) fragment free<br />3) store-and-forward<br /><br />1) store-and-forward<br />2) fragment free<br />3) fast forward<br /><br />1) fragment free<br />2) fast forward<br />3) store-and-forward<br /><br />1) fast forward<br />2) store-and-forward<br />3) fragment free<br /><br />32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?<br />• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *<br />message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.<br />banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *<br />hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)<br />Øverst på formularen<br /><br />33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)<br />RouterA(config)# router ospf<br />• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1<br />RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0<br />• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0<br />RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0<br /><br />34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?<br />router ospf 1<br />network 192.168.10.0<br /><br />• router ospf 1<br />network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0<br />network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0<br /><br />router ospf 1<br />network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192<br />network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252<br /><br />router ospf 1<br />network 192.168.10.0 area 0<br /><br />35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?<br />TCP<br />• RIP<br />CSMA/CD<br />Ethernet<br /><br />36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?<br />a router with a serial interface<br />a router with an S/T interface<br />• a router with a U interface<br />an ISDN terminal adapter<br /><br />37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)<br />The clock rate is not set on the DTE.<br />An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.<br />A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.<br />• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.<br />• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device<br /><br />38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)<br />• data transport reliability<br />best path determination<br />• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits<br />encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses<br />best-effort datagram delivery<br /><br />39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)<br />• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.<br />192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.<br />192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.<br />This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.<br />• This command is used to define a static route<br /><br />40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)<br />• SMTP<br />• FTP<br />SNMP<br />• HTTP<br />TFTP<br />DHCP<br /><br />41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)<br />• BECN<br />DLCI<br />• DE<br />• FECN<br />LMI<br />Inverse ARP<br /><br />42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?<br />Router# show ip interfaces brief<br />• Router# show ip route<br />Router# show cdp neighbors<br />Router# show running-config<br />Router# show protocols<br /><br />43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?<br />router table<br />• topology table<br />DUAL table<br />CAM table<br />ARP table<br /><br />44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)<br />• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192<br />ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224<br />summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31<br />ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63<br />• serial interface on router A<br />serial interface on router B<br /><br />45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?<br />the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0<br />the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address<br />• the loopback with the highest IP address configured<br />the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces<br />the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces<br /><br />46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?<br />172.0.0.0<br />172.16.134.0<br />• 172.16.134.32<br />172.16.134.48<br />172.16.134.47<br />172.16.134.63<br /><br />47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)<br />• Router# show ip protocols<br />Router# show version<br />Router# show interfaces<br />Router# show ip updates<br />• Router# show ip route<br /><br />48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?<br />IP addresses<br />subnet masks<br />• port numbers<br />routed protocols<br />routing protocols<br />interfaces<br /><br />49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?<br />This is a useable host address.<br />This is a broadcast address.<br />• This is a network address.<br />This is not a valid address<br /><br />50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?<br />200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192<br />• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224<br />200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224<br />200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-2538467018551022032009-10-20T10:56:00.003-07:002009-10-20T10:56:36.187-07:00CCNA 4 Final 3 Version 4.0 Answers1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?<br />routable translation<br />dynamic translation<br />static translation<br />• port address translation<br /><br />2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)<br />• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload<br />ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload<br />ip nat inside serial0<br />• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload<br />ip nat inside Raleigh overload<br />ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh<br /><br />3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?<br />static<br />dynamic<br />• overload<br />private<br />public<br /><br />4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)<br />• 192.168.146.0/22<br />172.10.25.0/16<br />• 172.31.0.0/16<br />20.0.0.0/8<br />• 10.172.92.8/29<br /><br />5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?<br />Both links will transmit data at the same rate.<br />1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.<br />• Both links will transmit bits one by one.<br />The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.<br /><br />6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)<br />DHCP uses TCP.<br />DHCP uses UDP.<br />• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.<br />DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.<br />• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.<br />• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.<br /><br />7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?<br />Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5<br />Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5<br />Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5<br />• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5<br />Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5<br />Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5<br /><br />8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?<br />Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access<br />Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access<br />ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access<br />• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access<br /><br />9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?<br />show ip dhcp server statistics<br />show ip dhcp binding<br />• debug ip dhcp server events<br />debug ip dhcp binding<br /><br />10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?<br />terminal adapter<br />modem<br />• CSU/DSU<br />PBX switch<br />ISDN switch<br />Frame Relay Switch<br /><br />11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)<br />Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.<br />• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.<br />Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.<br />• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.<br />Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.<br />• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.<br /><br />12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?<br />HDLC<br />IPCP<br />LAPB<br />• LAPD<br />NCP<br />SS7<br /><br />13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?<br />X.25<br />DSL<br />• ATM<br />ISDN BRI<br />ISDN PRI<br /><br />14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?<br />DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.<br />DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.<br />DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.<br />• DSL has limited geographical availability.<br /><br />15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.<br />It provides for redundancy.<br />• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.<br />It is less expensive.<br />It provides faster connection time.<br />It provides less latency and jitter.<br /><br />16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?<br />DLCI<br />CO<br />• DCE<br />DTE<br />PRI<br />BRI<br /><br />17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)<br />• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.<br />A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.<br />Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.<br />A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.<br />A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.<br />• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.<br /><br />18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?<br />Nothing. The router is already suitable.<br />Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.<br />Purchase a U interface to install in the router.<br />• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.<br /><br />19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?<br />determines the next-hop address for a packet<br />• multiplexes signals from several sources<br />adapts information for use on a service provider's network<br />used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network<br /><br />20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)<br />The frame contains an incorrect IP address.<br />• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.<br />There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.<br />Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.<br />• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.<br /><br />21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)<br />• modem<br />router<br />• CSU/DSU<br />ISDN Switch<br />Frame Relay Switch<br /><br />22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)<br />• CHAP<br />• Stacker<br />IPCP<br />CDPCP<br />• Multilink<br /><br />23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?<br />• username tampa password florida<br />username tampa florida<br />hostname tampa password florida<br />hostname tampa florida<br /><br />24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)<br />• sends unencrypted authentication passwords<br />performs a three-way handshake<br />• allows repeated login attempts<br />uses the remote router hostname to verify identity<br />sends a random challenge throughout the session<br /><br />25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)<br />to create firewalls on routers<br />• to conserve IP addresses<br />to translate domain names into IP addresses<br />to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address<br />• to hide internal addresses from external devices<br /><br />26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)<br />• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.<br />The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.<br />The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.<br />The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.<br />The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.<br />• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.<br /><br />27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?<br />Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]<br />Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]<br />Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]<br />• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]<br /><br />28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?<br />exchange of call setup and teardown messages<br />PAP and CHAP authentication traffic<br />• Layer 2 messages on the D channel<br />protocol errors and statistics<br />Layer 2 messages on the B channel<br /><br />29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)<br />the enable password on the remote device<br />the ip host configuration on the remote device<br />• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device<br />the hostname and enable password on the local device<br />• the local database for the username and password of the remote device<br /><br />30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?<br />2<br />16<br />• 23<br />24<br />30<br />128<br /><br />31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)<br />• Linux<br />Windows 98<br />Windows ME<br />• Windows XP<br />• Windows 2000<br /><br />32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?<br />MAC address of the Orlando router<br />MAC address of the DC router<br />192.168.1.25<br />192.168.1.26<br />DLCI 100<br />• DLCI 200<br /><br />33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)<br />This is the first data frame sent by the router.<br />• This is a management frame.<br />The encapsulation type is Cisco.<br />The encapsulation type is IETF.<br />• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.<br />The LMI type is Cisco.<br /><br />34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)<br />Link Access Protocol - Data<br />• High-Level Data Link Control<br />Logical Link Control<br />Serial Data Link Control<br />• Point to Point protocol<br />Binary Synchronous Control protocol<br /><br />35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?<br />110<br />115<br />220<br />• 225<br /><br />36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)<br />• show frame-relay map<br />show frame-relay lmi<br />• show frame-relay pvc<br />show frame-relay interface<br />show interfaces<br />show ip route<br /><br />37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:<br />Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down<br />What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)<br />• remote CSU/DSU failure<br />serial cable missing<br />interface shutdown<br />• keepalives not being sent<br />• clocking signal missing<br /><br />38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)<br />The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.<br />The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.<br />• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.<br />• A table of static mappings can be searched.<br />The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.<br /><br />39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)<br />A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.<br />Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.<br />The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.<br />LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.<br />Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.<br /><br />40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)<br />• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.<br />The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.<br />• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.<br />The LMI type is ANSI (0x64).<br />There is currently no congestion on the link.<br /><br />41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)<br />• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits<br />map DLCIs to network addresses<br />• provide flow control<br />provide error notification<br />provide congestion notification<br />• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC<br /><br />42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)<br />PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.<br />PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.<br />• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.<br />• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.<br />PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.<br />• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.<br /><br />43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)<br />• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity<br />sends authentication password to verify identity<br />• prevents transmission of login information in plain text<br />• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails<br />initiates a two-way handshake<br /><br />44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider's network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?<br />circuit-switched<br />• packet-switched<br />frame-switched<br />dedicated-switched lines<br />lease-switched<br /><br />45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)<br />• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.<br />It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.<br />FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.<br />• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.<br />The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.<br /><br />46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)<br />A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.<br />A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.<br />• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.<br />• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.<br />A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-41430955359552628392009-10-20T10:56:00.001-07:002009-10-20T10:56:14.777-07:00CCNA 4 Final 2 Version 4.0 Answers1. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?<br /><br />Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.<br />Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.<br />**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.<br />All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.<br /><br /><br />2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?<br /><br />The username and password are not configured correctly.<br />The authentication method is not configured correctly.<br />The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.<br />**The vtys are not configured correctly.<br /><br /><br /><br />3. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?<br /><br />The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.<br />**The TCP/IP information is used by DHCP clients that are configured to request a configuration from R1.<br />The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.<br />The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.<br /><br />4. What is a major characteristic of a worm?<br /><br />malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs<br />tricks users into running the infected software<br />a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event<br />**exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network<br /><br /><br />5. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?<br /><br />The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.<br /><br />The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.<br /><br />**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.<br /><br />Port address translation is in effect.<br /><br /><br /><br />6. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?<br /><br />Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.<br /><br />Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.<br /><br />Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.<br /><br />**Company A is closer to the service provider.<br /><br /><br /><br /><br />7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?<br /><br />It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.<br />**It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.<br /><br />It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.<br /><br />It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.<br /><br /><br />8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output shown? (Choose two.)<br /><br />This network is experiencing congestion.<br /><br />**The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.<br />Data is not flowing in this network.<br /><br />**The network is discarding eligible packets.<br /><br />The DLCI is globally significant.<br /><br /><br /><br />9. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?<br /><br />Configure DHCP and static NAT.<br /><br />Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.<br /><br />Configure static NAT for all ten users.<br /><br />**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.<br /><br /><br /><br />10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?<br /><br />a new WAN service supporting only IPv6<br /><br />NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address<br /><br />**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2<br /><br />static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses<br /><br /><br /><br />11. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?<br /><br />HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1<br />HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2<br />**HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1<br />HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2<br /><br />HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1<br />HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2<br />HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1<br />HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2<br /><br /><br /><br />12. An established company has recently transitioned from outsourced LAN support to a completely in-house staff. The outsourcing company is no longer in business, so no records are available. There are many user complaints about application speed and availability. What two considerations apply to this situation? (Choose two.)<br /><br />A network utilization baseline should quickly reveal application availability.<br /><br />A period of 24 to 48 hours should provide a sufficient baseline to track normal network activity.<br /><br />It is easier to start with monitoring all available data inputs on application servers, and then fine-tune to fewer variables along the way.<br /><br />The initial baseline results have little relevance to current values after the network has been modified or grown in usage.<br /><br />**When it is practical, network administrators should attempt to automate the collection of performance data and stay away from manual collection.<br /><br />**Creating a network baseline data helps determine device thresholds for alerting.<br /><br /><br />13. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?<br /><br />PPP with PAP<br /><br />**PPP with CHAP<br /><br />HDLC with PAP<br /><br />HDLC with CHAP<br /><br /><br /><br />14. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?<br /><br />physical layer<br /><br />data link layer<br /><br />network layer<br /><br />**application layer<br /><br /><br /><br />15. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what are two instances when a static Frame Relay map should be used? (Choose two.)<br /><br />when the remote router is a non-Cisco router<br /><br />**when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP<br /><br />when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier<br /><br />**when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled<br /><br />when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used<br /><br />16. Which three statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)<br /><br />Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.<br /><br />**One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.<br /><br />Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.<br /><br />**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.<br /><br />**Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.<br /><br />The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.<br /><br /><br />17. Which technology would provide the highest bandwidth connections between company sites at the lowest cost?<br /><br />**broadband Internet site-to-site VPN connections<br /><br />satellite based network connections<br /><br />dedicated point-to-point circuits<br /><br />Frame Relay PVCs<br /><br /><br /><br />18. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?<br /><br />improper LMI type<br /><br />interface reset<br /><br />**PPP negotiation failure<br /><br />unplugged cable<br /><br /><br /><br />19. What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)<br /><br />**A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.<br /><br />A modem terminates a digital local loop.<br /><br />A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.<br /><br />**A modem terminates an analog local loop.<br /><br />**A router is commonly considered a DTE device.<br /><br />A router is commonly considered a DCE device.<br /><br /><br /><br />20. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?<br /><br />Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.<br /><br />Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.<br /><br />ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.<br /><br />**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.<br /><br /><br /><br />21. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?<br /><br />The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.<br /><br />LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.<br /><br />**The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.<br /><br />The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.<br /><br /><br /><br />22. Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?<br /><br />The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.<br /><br />The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.<br /><br />**A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.<br /><br />A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.<br /><br /><br /><br />23. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?<br /><br />MAC address of the Orlando router<br /><br />MAC address of the DC router<br /><br />192.168.1.25<br /><br />192.168.1.26<br /><br />DLCI 100<br /><br />**DLCI 200<br /><br /><br /><br />24 .A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four remote sites. What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?<br /><br />lower cost<br /><br />lower latency and jitter<br /><br />**variable bandwidth capacity<br /><br />fewer physical router interfaces<br /><br /><br /><br />25. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?<br /><br />proxy ARP<br /><br />CDP updates<br /><br />SNMP services<br /><br />**RIP authentication<br /><br /><br /><br />26. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?<br /><br />show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.<br /><br />show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.<br /><br />**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.<br /><br />show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.<br /><br /><br /><br />27. Which statement about a VPN is true?<br /><br />VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.<br /><br />DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.<br /><br />**VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.<br /><br />Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.<br /><br /><br /><br />28. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?<br /><br />Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.<br /><br />Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.<br /><br />**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.<br /><br />Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .<br /><br /><br /><br />29. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?<br /><br />The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.<br /><br />**The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.<br /><br />The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.<br /><br />The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.<br /><br /><br /><br />30. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)<br /><br />**It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.<br /><br />**It defines a process for managing security violations.<br /><br />**It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.<br /><br />The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.<br /><br />It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.<br /><br />It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.<br /><br /><br />31. Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?<br /><br />The clock rate must be 56000.<br /><br />**The usernames are misconfigured.<br /><br />The IP addresses are on different subnets.<br /><br />The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.<br /><br />The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.<br /><br />Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.<br /><br /><br /><br />32. What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?<br /><br />All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.<br /><br />The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.<br /><br />All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.<br /><br />**Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.<br /><br /><br /><br />33. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?<br /><br />use the copy tftp: flash: command<br /><br />boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually<br /><br />telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password<br /><br />**boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes<br /><br /><br /><br />34. A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)<br /><br />The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.<br /><br />The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.<br /><br />The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.<br /><br />**A table of static mappings can be searched.<br /><br />The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.<br /><br /><br /><br />35. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?<br /><br />application<br /><br />transport<br /><br />network<br /><br />**data link<br /><br />physical<br /><br /><br /><br />36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?<br /><br />interface fa0/0/0, inbound<br /><br />interface fa0/0/0, outbound<br /><br />interface fa0/0/1, inbound<br /><br />**interface fa0/0/1, outbound<br /><br /><br /><br />37. Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?<br /><br />SSH is unable to pass through NAT.<br /><br />**There are incorrect access control list entries.<br /><br />The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.<br /><br />The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.<br /><br /><br /><br />38. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)<br /><br />**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.<br /><br />Encapsulation should of this inteface be changed to PPP.<br /><br />**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.<br /><br />The physical connection between the two routers has failed.<br /><br />The IP address of S0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.<br /><br /><br /><br />39. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?<br /><br />Source 192.168.1.2 - Destination 192.168.4.2<br /><br />Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2<br /><br />**Source 192.168.2.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2<br /><br />Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.4.2<br /><br /><br /><br />40. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?<br /><br />RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.<br /><br />All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.<br /><br />**RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.<br /><br />When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.<br /><br /><br /><br />41. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?<br /><br />Wi-Fi<br /><br />WiMAX<br /><br />**satellite<br /><br />Metro Ethernet<br /><br /><br /><br />42. A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?<br /><br />**Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.<br /><br />Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.<br /><br />Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous weeks.<br /><br />Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.<br /><br /><br /><br />43. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a part of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco IOS software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done next to isolate this problem?<br /><br />From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.<br /><br />From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.<br /><br />From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco IOS software.<br /><br />**From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.<br /><br /><br /><br />44. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?<br /><br />**defines which addresses can be translated<br /><br />defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool<br /><br />defines which addresses are allowed out of the router<br /><br />defines which addresses can be accessed from the inside network<br /><br /><br /><br />45. A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches.<br /><br />Which statement applies to this situation?<br /><br />**Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.<br /><br />Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.<br /><br />It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.<br /><br />Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.<br /><br /><br />46. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?<br /><br />10.1.1.2:1234<br /><br />172.30.20.1:1234<br /><br />**172.30.20.1:3333<br /><br />192.168.1.2:80<br /><br /><br /><br />47. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)<br /><br />Once a good password is created, do not change it.<br /><br />**Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.<br /><br />**Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.<br /><br />**Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.<br /><br />Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.<br /><br />Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.<br /><br /><br /><br />48. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?<br /><br />Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.<br /><br />Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.<br /><br />**The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.<br /><br />The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.<br /><br /><br /><br />49. Which two statements are true about IPv6? (Choose two.)<br /><br />**Security options are build into IPv6.<br /><br />IPv6 addresses require less router overhead to process.<br /><br />IPv6 can only be configured on an interface that does not have IPv4 on it.<br /><br />There is no way to translate between IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses.<br /><br />**When enabled on a router, IPv6 can automatically configure link-local IPv6 addresses on all interfaces.<br /><br /><br /><br />50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?<br /><br />The serial interfaces are in different subnets.<br /><br />**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.<br /><br />The RIPng network command is not configured.<br /><br />The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.<br /><br /><br /><br />51. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?<br /><br />demilitarized zone (DMZ)<br /><br />**demarcation point<br /><br />local loop<br /><br />cloud<br /><br /><br /><br />52. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?<br /><br />The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.<br /><br />**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.<br /><br />The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.<br /><br />The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.<br /><br /><br /><br />53. Which three functions are provided by the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)<br /><br />**exchange information about the status of virtual circuits<br /><br />**map DLCIs to network addresses<br /><br />provide flow control<br /><br />provide error notification<br /><br />provide congestion notification<br /><br />**send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC<br /><br /><br /><br />54. Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)<br /><br />**CHAP<br /><br />**Stacker<br /><br />IPCP<br /><br />CDPCP<br /><br />**Multilink<br /><br /><br /><br />55. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)<br /><br />checksum<br /><br />digital certificates<br /><br />**encapsulation<br /><br />**encryptionUnknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-82929873990295652302009-10-20T10:55:00.003-07:002009-10-20T10:55:47.053-07:00CCNA 4 Final 1 Version 4.0 Answers1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)<br />• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.<br />A modem terminates a digital local loop.<br />A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.<br />• A modem terminates an analog local loop.<br />• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.<br />A router is commonly considered a DCE device.<br /><br />2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?<br />CIR<br />DE<br />• DLCI<br />ISDN<br />FRAD<br />PVC<br /><br />3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?<br />The IP addresses must be on different subnets.<br />• The usernames are misconfigured.<br />The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.<br />The clock rate must be 56000.<br />The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.<br />Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.<br /><br />4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)<br />• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.<br />There is no clock present on the serial interface.<br />The interface is shut down.<br />RARP is not functioning on the router.<br />• The cable is disconnected.<br /><br />5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)<br />• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).<br />• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.<br />The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.<br />• The point is called the demarcation point.<br />The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.<br />The point is located between the customer's local area networks.<br /><br />6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?<br />show interfaces serial 0/0<br />show version<br />• show controllers serial 0/0<br />show protocols serial 0/0<br />show status serial 0/0<br /><br />7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?<br />The DHCP server service is not enabled.<br />The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.<br />• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.<br />The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.<br />All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.<br /><br />8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)<br />• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.<br />A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.<br />• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.<br />A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.<br />An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.<br /><br />9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)<br />when the remote router is a non-Cisco router<br />• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP<br />when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier<br />• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled<br />when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used<br /><br />10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?<br />RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2<br />RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast<br />• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast<br />RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast<br />RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast<br />RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast<br /><br />11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?<br />• ITU-T Q.921<br />ITU-T Q.931<br />ITU-T I.430<br />ITU-T I.431<br /><br />12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)<br />create a full-mesh topology<br />disable Inverse ARP<br />use point-to-point subinterfaces<br />use multipoint subinterfaces<br />remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command<br /><br />13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?<br />defines which addresses are allowed out of the router<br />• defines which addresses are allowed into the router<br />defines which addresses can be translated<br />defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool<br /><br />14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:<br />- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.<br />- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.<br />- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.<br />- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.<br />- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.<br />What should the administrator do to solve the problem?<br />Add a clock rate on RouterA.<br />Enable the serial interface on RouterB.<br />• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.<br />Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.<br />Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.<br /><br />15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?<br />change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles<br />remove the dialer list statement from the configuration<br />• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting<br />disable inverse ARP<br /><br />16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?<br />1 - dial number is looked up<br />2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR<br />3 - route to destination is determined<br />4 - call is made<br />1,2,3,4<br />1,3,2,4<br />2,3,1,4<br />2,1,3,4<br />• 3,2,1,4<br />3,1,2,4<br /><br />17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?<br />NAT with DHCP<br />Frame Relay<br />HDLC with encryption<br />HDLC with CHAP<br />PPP with PAP<br />• PPP with CHAP<br /><br />18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)<br />create subinterfaces<br />define the LMI type<br />set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch<br />set the interface DLCI<br />set the switch type<br />specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF<br /><br />19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?<br />use PPP multilink<br />lower idle timer setting<br />use CHAP authentication<br />• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles<br /><br />20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)<br />• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.<br />HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.<br />• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.<br />Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.<br />The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.<br />There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.<br /><br />21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)<br />• The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.<br />The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.<br />• The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.<br />The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.<br />The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.<br /><br />22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?<br />The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.<br />The usernames are misconfigured.<br />The clock rate must be 56000.<br />The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.<br />• The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.<br />Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.<br /><br />23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?<br />dial string<br />DLCI<br />idle time out<br />• interesting traffic<br />PVC<br /><br />24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?<br />Application Layer, Physical Layer<br />• Data Link Layer, Physical Layer<br />Data Link Layer, Transport Layer<br />Physical Layer, Network Layer<br /><br />25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?<br />The routers are configured for different encapsulations.<br />• The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.<br />The circuit from WAN provider has failed.<br />Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.<br />The circuit is functioning properly.<br /><br />26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)<br />• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.<br />Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.<br />Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.<br />Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.<br />• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.<br /><br />27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)<br />• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.<br />Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.<br />Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.<br />The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.<br />• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.<br /><br />28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?<br />There is not a route to the remote router.<br />The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.<br />• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.<br />The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.<br /><br />29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)<br />Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active<br />• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.<br />172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.<br />DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.<br />broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.<br />• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.<br />active indicates that the ARP process is working.<br /><br />30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?<br />• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.<br />The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.<br />The DLCI is usable but has little activity.<br />The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.<br /><br />31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)<br />• 192.168.146.0/22<br />172.10.25.0/16<br />• 172.31.0.0/16<br />20.0.0.0/8<br />• 10.172.92.8/29<br /><br />32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)<br />PPP authentication is not properly configured.<br />• No dialer map is configured.<br />The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.<br />• No interesting traffic is defined.<br />No route is determined to the remote network.<br />• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.<br /><br />33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?<br />frame-relay pvc multipoint<br />frame-relay pvc point-to-point<br />encapsulation frame-relay cisco<br />• encapsulation frame-relay ietf<br />frame-relay lmi-type ansi<br /><br />34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?<br />X.25<br />DSL<br />ISDN<br />cable modem<br /><br />35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?<br />show dialer<br />show isdn status<br />• show interfaces bri0/0:1<br />show interfaces serial0/0.1<br /><br />36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?<br />Install and configure a PRI.<br />Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.<br />Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.<br />• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.<br />Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.<br /><br />37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?<br />Configure static NAT for all ten users.<br />• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.<br />Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.<br />Configure DHCP and static NAT.<br />What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.<br /><br />38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)<br />circuit-switched<br />• connection oriented<br />OSI Layer 3<br />• packet-switched<br />reliable<br /><br />39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?<br />authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols<br />authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment<br />network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication<br />network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment<br />• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols<br />link-establishment, network layer protocols, authenticationUnknownnoreply@blogger.com1tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-76618745430687791752009-10-20T10:55:00.001-07:002009-10-20T10:55:12.163-07:00CCNA 4 Module 8 Version 4.0 Answers1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)<br />cable types<br />connector types<br />• interface identifiers<br />• DLCI for virtual circuits<br />operating system versions<br /><br />2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?<br />physical<br />• data link<br />network<br />transport<br /><br />3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?<br />incorrect encapsulation<br />incorrect STP configuration<br />incorrect ARP mapping<br />• incorrect clock rate<br /><br />4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)<br />• information about the network design<br />IP addressing allocation on the network<br />requirements about the service provider setup<br />requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic<br />• expected performance under normal operating conditions<br /><br />5.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)<br />Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.<br />• Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.<br />• Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.<br />Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.<br />Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.<br /><br />6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)<br />TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.<br />• The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.<br />Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.<br />The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.<br />The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.<br />• The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.<br /><br />7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?<br />• The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.<br />Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the<br />application servers in the data center.<br />The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.<br />Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.<br /><br />8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?<br />• bottom up<br />top down<br />divide and conquer<br />middle out<br /><br />9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?<br />• baselining tool<br />knowledge base<br />protocol analyzer<br />cable tester<br /><br />10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?<br />cable analyzer<br />• network analyzer<br />protocol analyzer<br />knowledge base<br /><br />11.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?<br />physical<br />data link<br />network<br />• application<br /><br />12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?<br />narrowing the scope<br />gathering symptoms from suspect devices<br />analyzing existing symptoms<br />• determining ownership<br /><br />13.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)<br />• A carrier detect signal is present.<br />• Keepalives are being received successfully.<br />Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.<br />Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.<br />The reliability of this link is very low.<br />The LCP negotiation phase is complete.<br /><br />14.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)<br />• The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.<br />Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.<br />• The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.<br />An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.<br />The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.<br /><br />15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?<br />application<br />transport<br />network<br />data link<br />• physical<br /><br />16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?<br />physical<br />• data link<br />network<br />transport<br /><br />17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?<br />192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7<br />192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15<br />• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7<br />192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15<br /><br />18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)<br />physical layer<br />data link layer<br />network layer<br />• transport layer<br />• application layer<br /><br />19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?<br />All layers<br />• Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3<br />Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4<br />Layer 6 and Layer 7<br /><br />20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)<br />Determine fault.<br />Get to know the user to build trust.<br />• Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.<br />Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.<br />• Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.<br />• Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-14761518888057881862009-10-20T10:54:00.003-07:002009-10-20T10:54:53.278-07:00CCNA 4 Module 7 Version 4.0 Answers1. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?<br />Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.<br />The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.<br />Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.<br />• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.<br /><br />2. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?<br />show spanning-tree<br />• show interfaces trunk*<br />show cdp neighbors<br />show interfaces<br />show ip interface brief<br /><br />3. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?<br />• They select the functions that align with the business goals.<br />They select the functions that occur at the network core.<br />They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.<br />They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.<br /><br />4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?<br />• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.<br />The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.<br />The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.<br />The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.<br />The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.<br /><br />5. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)<br />Provide redundant connections to all end users.<br />Add another core switch to increase redundancy.<br />• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.<br />Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.<br />• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.<br /><br />6. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?<br />discarding<br />Forwarding<br />learning<br />listening<br /><br />7. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)<br />• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.<br />Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.<br />• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.<br />Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.<br />Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.<br /><br />8. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?<br />• R1*<br />S1<br />R3<br />S2<br />R5<br />S3<br /><br />9. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?<br />Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.<br />Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.<br />Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.<br />• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.<br />Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.<br /><br />10. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?<br />Add an enable password to the switch.<br />• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.<br />Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.<br />Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.<br /><br />11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?<br />• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.<br />EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.<br />EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.<br />EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.<br /><br />12. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?<br />the metric used for a particular route<br />• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface<br />the priority number given to the device for the election process<br />the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number<br />the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing<br /><br />13. Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?<br />• STP*<br />BGP<br />RSTP<br />HSRP<br /><br />14. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?<br />NBAR<br />a pilot network<br />a route summary<br />• a network simulator*<br />a physical topology map<br /><br />15. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?<br />Test Description<br />Test Procedures<br />Design and Topology Diagram<br />Actual Results and Conclusions<br />• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria<br /><br />16. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?<br />• Appendix<br />Test Procedures<br />Test Description<br />Actual Results and Conclusions<br />Anticipated Results and Success Criteria<br /><br />17. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?<br />inbound on Fa0/0 of R3<br />outbound on Fa0/0 of R3<br />inbound on Fa0/1 of R3<br />• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3<br />inbound on Fa0/1 of R2<br />outbound on S0/0 of R2<br /><br />18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?<br />• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.*<br />Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.<br />Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.<br />Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.<br /><br />19. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?<br />a firewall at the network edge<br />• port security at the access design layer<br />port security at the distribution design layer<br />IP access control lists at the access design layer<br /><br />20. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)<br />Switch1 is the root bridge.<br />Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.<br />• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.<br />• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.<br />Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.<br /><br />21. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?<br />root<br />backup<br />alternate<br />• DesignatedUnknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-84114968564722808882009-10-20T10:54:00.001-07:002009-10-20T10:54:13.134-07:00CCNA 4 Module 6 Version 4.0 Answers1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)<br />users are on a shared medium<br />uses RF signal transmission<br />• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)<br />physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS<br />• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO<br /><br />2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)<br />• channel widths<br />access method<br />maximum data rate<br />• modulation techniques<br />compression techniques<br /><br />3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)<br />use higher RF frequencies<br />• allocate an additional channel<br />• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment<br />reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less<br />use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic<br /><br />4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?<br />cable<br />• DSL<br />ISDN<br />POTS<br /><br />5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?<br />A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.<br />• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN clientsoftware.<br />Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting asingle user environment.<br />Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections usingPOTS.<br /><br />6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)<br />accounting<br />• authentication<br />authorization<br />data availability<br />• data confidentiality<br />• data integrity<br /><br />7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)<br />• digital certificates<br />ESP<br />hashing algorithms<br />• smart cards<br />WPA<br /><br />8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)<br />digital certificates<br />• encryption<br />• encapsulation<br />hashing<br />passwords<br /><br />9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)<br />• AES<br />• DES<br />AH<br />hash<br />MPLS<br />• RSA<br /><br />10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?<br />Diffie-Hellman<br />digital certificate<br />• pre-shared key<br />RSA signature<br /><br />11. Which statement describes cable?<br />• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.<br />The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)<br />Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.<br />Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.<br /><br />12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at theteleworker's site?<br />a WiMAX tower<br />a one-way multicast satellite<br />• a WiMAX receiver<br />an access point connected to the company WLAN<br /><br />13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)<br />supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies<br />• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers<br />supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access<br />• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections<br />operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users<br /><br />14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?<br />• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.<br />Data is flowing downstream.<br />Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.<br />The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.<br /><br />15.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network.<br />Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?<br />Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installedon the edge of the network.<br />Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.<br />Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.<br />• All locations can support VPN connectivity.<br /><br />16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)<br />• AH<br />L2TP<br />• ESP<br />GRE<br />PPTP<br /><br />17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)<br />ATM<br />CHAP<br />• IPsec<br />IPX<br />MPLS<br />• PPTP<br /><br />18.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?<br />a GRE tunnel<br />a site-to-site VPN<br />• a remote-access VPN<br />the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection<br /><br />19.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)<br />The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.<br />The devices must have the VPN client software installed.<br />The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.<br />• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.<br />• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.<br />• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-11142826119950505352009-10-20T10:53:00.003-07:002009-10-20T10:53:54.519-07:00CCNA 4 Module 5 Version 4.0 Answers1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?<br />blocked in and out of all interfaces<br />blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces<br />• permitted in and out of all interfaces<br />blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces<br /><br />2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)<br />packet size<br />• protocol suite<br />• source address<br />• destination address<br />source router interface<br />destination router interface<br /><br />3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?<br />by destination UDP port<br />by protocol type<br />• by source IP address<br />by source UDP port<br />by destination IP address<br /><br />4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)<br />Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.<br />Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.<br />• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.<br />• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.<br />Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.<br /><br />5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?<br />close to the source<br />• close to the destination<br />on an Ethernet port<br />on a serial port<br /><br />6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)<br />• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.<br />• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.<br />A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.<br />A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.<br />• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.<br />Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.<br /><br />7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)<br />The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.<br />• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.<br />The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.<br />• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.<br />The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.<br /><br />8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)<br />ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20<br />access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21<br />access-list 101 permit ip any any<br /><br />• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.<br />All traffic is implicitly denied.<br />FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.<br />Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.<br />• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.<br /><br />9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?<br />• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.<br />Both ACLs are applied to the interface.<br />The network administrator receives an error.<br />Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.<br /><br />10.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web<br />server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?<br />ISP Fa0/0 outbound<br />R2 S0/0/1 inbound<br />• R3 Fa0/0 inbound<br />R3 S0/0/1 outbound<br /><br />11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)<br />Only named ACLs allow comments.<br />• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.<br />Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.<br />• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.<br />More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.<br /><br />12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)<br />• extended ACL<br />reflexive ACL<br />console logging<br />• authentication<br />• Telnet connectivity<br />user account with a privilege level of 15<br /><br />13.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?<br />It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.<br />• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.<br />It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.<br />It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.<br /><br />14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the<br />company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company.<br />What type of ACL is most appropriate?<br />dynamic<br />port-based<br />• reflexive<br />time-based<br /><br />15.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?<br />TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.<br />TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.<br />Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.<br />• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.<br /><br />16. The following commands were entered on a router:<br />Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24<br />Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any<br />The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?<br />• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.<br />The access list statements are misconfigured.<br />All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.<br />No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.<br /><br />17.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?<br />Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.<br />The access list is applied in the wrong direction.<br />The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.<br />• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.<br /><br />18.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?<br />• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.<br />Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.<br />Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.<br />Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.<br /><br />19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true<br />Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.<br />• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.<br />They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.<br />When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.<br /><br />20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?<br />Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.<br />Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.<br />Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.<br />• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.<br /><br />21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?<br />the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol<br />the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination<br />the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic<br />• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list<br /><br />22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network<br />address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?<br />172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255<br />127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255<br />• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255<br />172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255<br />172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255<br /><br />23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)<br />Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.<br />The word "any" indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.<br />• The word "host" corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.<br />• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.<br />A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.<br /><br />24.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?<br />It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.<br />It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.<br />It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.<br />• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.<br /><br />25.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?<br />• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.<br />Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.<br />Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.<br />Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.<br /><br />26.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?<br />The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.<br />• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.<br />The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.<br />The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-2187847548381979122009-10-20T10:53:00.001-07:002009-10-20T10:53:32.840-07:00CCNA 4 Module 4 Version 4.0 Answers1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)<br />Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.<br />**Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.<br />Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.<br />Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.<br />** Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.<br /><br />2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)<br />Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.<br />Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.<br />Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.<br />** A bruteforce attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.<br />** Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.<br /><br />3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?<br />reconnaissance<br />access<br />** DoS<br />worm<br />virus<br />Trojan horse<br /><br />4. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening email messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?<br />DoS<br />DDoS<br />** virus<br />access<br />reconnaissance<br /><br />5. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)<br />The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.<br />Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.<br />** Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.<br />Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.<br />** Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.<br /><br />6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?<br />securing<br />** monitoring<br />testing<br />improvement<br />reconnaissance<br /><br />7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)<br />provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers<br />describe how the firewall must be configured<br />** document the resources to be protected<br />** identify the security objectives of the organization<br />identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router<br /><br />8. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)<br />** It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.<br />** It communicates consensus and defines roles.<br />It is developed by end users.<br />It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.<br />** It defines how to handle security incidents.<br />It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.<br /><br />9. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)<br />** By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.<br />DNS name queries require the ip directedbroadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.<br />Using the global configuration command ip nameserver on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.<br />** The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.<br />The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.<br /><br />10. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)<br />It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.<br />** It offers the ability to instantly disable nonessential system processes and services.<br />It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.<br />It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.<br />** It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.<br /><br />11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?<br /><br /><br />** The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.<br />The authentication method is not configured correctly.<br />The HTTP server is not configured correctly.<br />The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.<br /><br />12. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600dmz.1214? (Choose two.)<br />The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.<br />The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.<br />** The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.<br />The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.<br />** The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.<br /><br />13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)<br /><br /><br />The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.<br />The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.<br />** The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.<br />** The TFTP server software has not been started.<br />There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.<br /><br />14. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)<br />Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.<br />Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.<br />Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.<br />** Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.<br />** Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.<br /><br />15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)<br />** ROM monitor<br />boot ROM<br />Cisco IOS<br />** direct connection through the console port<br />network connection through the Ethernet port<br />network connection through the serial port<br /><br />16. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?<br /><br /><br />The password is sent in plain text.<br />A Telnet session is established with R1.<br />** The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.<br />The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.<br /><br />17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?<br />SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.<br />**SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.<br />SDM should be used for complex router configurations.<br />SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.<br /><br />18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?<br />** Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.<br />Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.<br />Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.<br />Reconfigure the router using setup mode.<br /><br />19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?<br />Schedule antivirus scans.<br />Schedule antispyware scans .<br />** Schedule training for all users.<br />Schedule operating systems updates.<br /><br />20. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?<br /><br /><br />SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.<br />SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.<br />SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.<br />** SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.<br /><br />21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf messagedigestkey 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?<br /><br /><br />** to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates<br />to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic<br />to enable SSH encryption of traffic<br />to create an IPsec tunnel<br /><br />22. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?<br /><br /><br />The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.<br />The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.<br />** The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.<br />The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-53475934820188758482009-10-20T10:52:00.004-07:002009-10-20T10:53:13.930-07:00CCNA 4 Module 3 Version 4.0 Answers1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?<br />• Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.<br />Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.<br />• Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.<br />Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional<br />hardware for leased service.<br /><br />2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)<br />• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.<br />It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.<br />FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.<br />• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.<br />The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.<br /><br />3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?<br />local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network<br />• locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit<br />logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch<br />logical address used to identify the DCE<br /><br />4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?<br />ISDN circuit<br />limited access circuit<br />switched parallel circuit<br />• virtual circuit<br /><br />5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)<br />ARP<br />RARP<br />Proxy ARP<br />• Inverse ARP<br />• LMI status messages<br />ICMP<br /><br />6.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?<br />• 110<br />115<br />220<br />225<br /><br />7.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)<br />The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.<br />• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.<br />DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1<br />• Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.<br />Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.<br /><br />8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?<br />It helps to conserve IP addresses.<br />It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.<br />• It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.<br />It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.<br /><br />9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)<br />puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR<br />• drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set<br />reduces the number of frames it sends over the link<br />re-negotiates flow control with the connected device<br />• sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link<br />• sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link<br /><br />10.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)<br />The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.<br />• The local DLCI number is 401.<br />• Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.<br />This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.<br />Multicast is not enabled on this connection.<br /><br />11.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)<br />The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.<br />The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.<br />• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.<br />• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.<br />The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.<br /><br />12.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?<br />It is currently not transmitting data.<br />It is in the process of establishing the PVC.<br />It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.<br />• It is experiencing congestion.<br /><br />13.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?<br />• The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.<br />The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.<br />The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.<br />The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.<br /><br />14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?<br />Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point<br />subinterfaces will consume.<br />• Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.<br />Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.<br />Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.<br /><br />15.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that<br />interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of<br />172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface<br />on HQ be configured to complete the topology?<br />one multipoint subinterface<br />• two point-to-point subinterfaces<br />with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses<br />one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface<br /><br />16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?<br />• To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command<br />coupled with the broadcast keyword.<br />Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay<br />nodes.<br />Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.<br />To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.<br /><br />17.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?<br />Split horizon must be disabled.<br />The LMI type must be specified.<br />Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.<br />• The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.<br /><br />18.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?<br /><br />R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102<br />R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103<br /><br />R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301<br /><br />R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201<br /><br />R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point<br />R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp<br />R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point<br />R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp<br /><br />• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201<br />R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301<br /><br />19.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?<br />The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.<br />The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.<br />The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.<br />• The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.<br /><br />20.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?<br />LMI updates are not being received properly.<br />• The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.<br />Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.<br />The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.<br /><br />21.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?<br />Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.<br />• Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.<br />Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.<br />Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.<br /><br />22.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast<br /><br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast<br /><br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast<br /><br />• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcastUnknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-29153658675911200212009-10-20T10:52:00.003-07:002009-10-20T10:52:44.745-07:00CCNA 4 Module 2 Version 4.0 Answers1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?<br />• Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.<br />Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.<br />• Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.<br />Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional<br />hardware for leased service.<br /><br />2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)<br />• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.<br />It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.<br />FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.<br />• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.<br />The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.<br /><br />3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?<br />local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network<br />• locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit<br />logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch<br />logical address used to identify the DCE<br /><br />4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?<br />ISDN circuit<br />limited access circuit<br />switched parallel circuit<br />• virtual circuit<br /><br />5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)<br />ARP<br />RARP<br />Proxy ARP<br />• Inverse ARP<br />• LMI status messages<br />ICMP<br /><br />6.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?<br />• 110<br />115<br />220<br />225<br /><br />7.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)<br />The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.<br />• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.<br />DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1<br />• Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.<br />Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.<br /><br />8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?<br />It helps to conserve IP addresses.<br />It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.<br />• It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.<br />It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.<br /><br />9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)<br />puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR<br />• drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set<br />reduces the number of frames it sends over the link<br />re-negotiates flow control with the connected device<br />• sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link<br />• sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link<br /><br />10.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)<br />The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.<br />• The local DLCI number is 401.<br />• Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.<br />This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.<br />Multicast is not enabled on this connection.<br /><br />11.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)<br />The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.<br />The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.<br />• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.<br />• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.<br />The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.<br /><br />12.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?<br />It is currently not transmitting data.<br />It is in the process of establishing the PVC.<br />It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.<br />• It is experiencing congestion.<br /><br />13.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?<br />• The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.<br />The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.<br />The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.<br />The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.<br /><br />14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?<br />Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point<br />subinterfaces will consume.<br />• Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.<br />Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.<br />Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.<br /><br />15.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that<br />interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of<br />172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface<br />on HQ be configured to complete the topology?<br />one multipoint subinterface<br />• two point-to-point subinterfaces<br />with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses<br />one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface<br /><br />16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?<br />• To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command<br />coupled with the broadcast keyword.<br />Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay<br />nodes.<br />Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.<br />To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.<br /><br />17.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?<br />Split horizon must be disabled.<br />The LMI type must be specified.<br />Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.<br />• The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.<br /><br />18.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?<br /><br />R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102<br />R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103<br /><br />R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301<br /><br />R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201<br /><br />R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point<br />R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp<br />R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point<br />R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp<br /><br />• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201<br />R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301<br /><br />19.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?<br />The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.<br />The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.<br />The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.<br />• The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.<br /><br />20.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?<br />LMI updates are not being received properly.<br />• The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.<br />Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.<br />The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.<br /><br />21.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?<br />Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.<br />• Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.<br />Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.<br />Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.<br /><br />22.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast<br /><br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast<br /><br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast<br /><br />• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast<br />R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast<br />R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcastUnknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-17778950963180206372009-10-20T10:52:00.001-07:002009-10-20T10:52:21.685-07:00CCNA 4 Module 1 Version 4.0 Answers1. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)<br />**Physical Layer<br />**Data Link Layer<br />Network Layer<br />Transport Layer<br />Presentation Layer<br />Application Layer<br /><br />2. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)<br />** ATM switches<br />**core routers<br />CSU/DSU<br />Ethernet switches<br />**Frame Relay switches<br />repeaters<br /><br />3. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dialin and dialout traffic of multiple users to and from a network?<br />core router<br />** access server<br />Frame Relay switch<br />ATM switch<br /><br />4. Which packetswitched WAN technology offers highbandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?<br />Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)<br />**metro Ethernet<br />Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)<br />Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)<br /><br />5. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)<br />** CIR<br />**DLCI<br />DSLAM<br />** PVC<br />SPID<br />53byte cells<br /><br />6. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?<br />**ATM<br />ISDN<br />Frame Relay<br />metro Ethernet<br /><br />7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)<br />** low cost<br />** availability<br />traffic encryption<br />available bandwidth<br />support for voice and video<br /><br />8. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)<br />DLCI<br />** circuit switching<br />packet switching<br />** data bearer channels<br />switched virtual circuits<br />** time-division multiplexing<br /><br />9. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?<br />smaller cells<br />** number of subscribers<br />committed information rate<br />distance from the central office of the provider<br /><br />10. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?<br />PVCs<br />DLCIs<br />**tunnels<br />virtual circuits<br />dedicated Layer 2 links<br /><br />11. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?<br />ATM<br />ISDN<br />** analog dialup<br />T1 Leased Line<br /><br />12. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?<br />**CSU/DSU<br />Frame Relay switch<br />ISDN switch<br />modem<br />PBX switch<br /><br />13. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?<br />DLCI<br />DTE<br />** DCE<br />BRI<br />PRI<br /><br />14. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?<br />circuitswitched<br />dedicated switched lines<br />frame-switched<br />**packet-switched<br /><br />15. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?<br />X.25<br />DSL<br />** ATM<br />ISDN BRI<br />ISDN PRI<br /><br />16. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)<br />** modem<br />router<br />**CSU/DSU<br />ISDN switch<br />Ethernet switch<br /><br />17. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?<br />The purpose of the access layer is to provide very high bandwidth communications between network devices.<br />Most security screening to prevent unauthorized entry to the network happens at the core layer.<br />Untrusted external connections are segmented from the rest of the network at all three levels.<br />The core layer uses high speed equipment to provide policybased connectivity.<br />** The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.<br /><br />18. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?<br />Normally the CSU/DSU is the designated demarcation point for the service provider but not the customer.<br />** The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."<br />The local loop is the segment between the CSU/DSU and the serial port on a router.<br />Putting data on the local loop is the responsibility of the DTE.<br /><br />19. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?<br />WANs generally support higher bandwidth than LANs support.<br />A WAN link typically traverses shorter geographic distances than a LAN link traverses.<br />** A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.<br />All WAN implementations generally use the same Layer 2 protocol but there are many accepted LAN Layer 2 protocols in use.<br /><br />20. Why is the call setup time of a circuitswitched WAN implementation considered a drawback?<br />Routing protocols are incompatible with this function.<br />It restricts the communication sent to voice traffic only.<br />A telephone must be used to initially start transferring data.<br />**Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.<br /><br />21. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?<br />ATM differs from other WAN protocols in that it uses variably sized packets.<br />** Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.<br />The frame header consists of the frame check sequence and cyclic redundancy check.<br />ISDN differs from Frame Relay, HDLC, and ATM in that it is packetswitched rather than circuitswitched technology.<br /><br />22. What is an advantage of packetswitched technology over circuitswitched technology?<br />Packetswitched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuitswitched networks are.<br />** Packetswitched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.<br />Packetswitched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint.<br />Packetswitched networks usually experience lower latency than circuitswitched networks experience.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com2tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-12031392171116734042009-10-20T10:44:00.003-07:002009-10-20T10:44:48.454-07:00CCNA 3 Final 1 Version 4.0 Answers1<br />Refer to the exhibit. The Fast Ethernet port Fa0/1 on the switch is configured for auto-negotiate speed/duplex settings, and the NIC on the machine is set to 100 Mbps, full-duplex. The log error message shown has been received. What two solutions could fix the problem? (Choose two.)<br />Configure the switch manually for auto-negotiate speed/duplex and the NIC on the machine for 100 Mbps, half-duplex.<br />**Configure both sides of the link for auto-negotiate speed/duplex settings.<br />**Manually configure both sides of the link for 100 Mbps, full-duplex.<br />Manually configure the switch for 100 Mbps, full-duplex, and the NIC on the machine for auto-negotiate.<br />Manually configure the switch for 1000 Mbps, full-duplex, and the NIC on the machine for auto-negotiate.<br /><br />2<br />Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and Host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?<br />Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.<br />**Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.<br />Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.<br />Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.<br />Configure ISL encapsulation on both ends of the trunk.<br /><br />3<br />What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard? (Choose two.)<br />single-input, single-output<br />**improved range<br />requires less equipment<br />hardware upgrade for compatibility<br />**increased data rates<br /><br />4<br />Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?<br />Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.<br />**Configure SW2 as a VTP client.<br />Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.<br />Configure SW2 with no VTP domain password.<br />Disable VTP pruning on SW2.<br /><br />5<br />Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)<br />Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.<br />The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.<br />**After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.<br />Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.<br />**If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.<br /><br />6<br />Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?<br />Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.<br />Inter-VLAN routing is not functioning because the switch is still in the process of negotiating the trunk link.<br />**Interfaces gi0/1 and fa0/1 are carrying data from multiple VLANs.<br />The interfaces shown are shut down.<br /><br />7<br />Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?<br />The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.<br />**The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.<br />The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.<br />The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.<br /><br />8<br />Refer to the exhibit. Which device is the authenticator?<br />**access point<br />data server<br />client<br />RADIUS server<br /><br />9<br />What three radio frequency bands are designated by the ITU-R as unlicensed for industrial, scientific, and medical (ISM) communities and are therefore supported by IEEE 802.11? (Choose three.)<br />**900 MHz<br />9 MHz<br />**2.4 GHz<br />5.7 GHz<br />**5 GHz<br />900 GHz<br /><br />10<br />What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)<br />**Verify that the new switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain.<br />Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.<br />Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.<br />Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.<br />**Select the correct VTP mode and version.<br />**Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.<br /><br />11<br />Which three configurations are required to allow remote access to a switch using the telnet command? (Choose three.)<br />**default gateway<br />**vty line password<br />console line password<br />HTTP server interface authentication<br />**IP address of the switch on the management VLAN<br />duplex and speed on the Ethernet port used for the connection<br /><br />12<br />What are three benefits of a hiearchical network design model? (Choose three.)<br />**scalability<br />higher speed<br />mobility<br />**security<br />**manageability<br />cost<br /><br />13<br />Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added VoIP telephones and a VoIP gateway computer to the existing switch infrastructure, and then created the VLANs. What must be done to converge the network?<br />Combine all traffic except management traffic to a single VLAN.<br />Combine all traffic including management traffic to a single VLAN.<br />Use Layer 3 switching to combine the voice and data traffic at S1.<br />**The network is already converged.<br />Implement a common IP addressing scheme for both VoIP phones and PCs.<br /><br />14<br />Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping Pc3 but cannot ping Pc1. What is a possible cause for this failure?<br />**S1 port fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.<br />Pc1 IP address is incorrect.<br />R1 does not have an active routing protocol.<br />Router interface fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.<br /><br />15<br />Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?<br />192.168.1.1 /26<br />192.168.1.11 /28<br />**192.168.1.22 /28<br />192.168.1.33 /28<br />192.168.1.44 /28<br />192.168.1.55 /28<br /><br />16<br />Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?<br />switch A<br />switch B<br />switch C<br />switch D<br />switch E<br />**switch F<br /><br />17<br />Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with rapid PVST+. Port Gi0/2 on S2 is the root port. A network administrator issues the spanning-tree link-type point-to-point command on port Gi0/1 for switch S2. What is the result of this command?<br />**If the link between D1 and C1 fails, port Gi0/2 on S2 rapidly transitions to the forwarding state.<br />PortFast is enabled on Gi0/2 on S2.<br />Port Gi0/2 on S2 becomes a designated port.<br />Broadcast packets are restricted on the link between S2 and D1.<br />Port Gi0/2 on S2 becomes an edge port.<br /><br />18<br />Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)<br />A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.<br />An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.<br />A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.<br />**A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.<br />A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.<br />**An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.<br /><br />19<br /><br /><br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. A host attached to port Fa0/3 of the switch can communicate with the host connected to port Fa0/16, but cannot communicate with the host connected to port Fa0/2. What could account for this failure?<br />Fa0/3 is down.<br />The trunk link to the router is down.<br />**The VLAN0010 network address is missing from the routing table.<br />Fa0/2 has been assigned to the administrative VLAN.<br />The router does not have a functional routing protocol installed.<br /><br />20<br />A network administrator wants to add a new switch to the existing VTP domain. The new switch will have a VLAN that the administrator does not want visible to any other switches. All other VLANs should be visible on all switches, and all VLANs should be visible to the new switch. Which solution meets the requirements with the least administrative effort?<br />Add the switch in server mode. After all VLANs have propagated to the new switch, change the trunked link to access mode. Add the private VLAN to the new switch.<br />Add the switch in server mode. Add an extended range VLAN to the new switch as the private VLAN.<br />Add the switch in server mode. Add the private VLAN to the new switch. Enable VTP pruning and ensure that no ports are placed in the private VLAN on any other switches.<br />**Add the switch in client mode. After the existing VLANs have propagated, change the switch to transparent mode. Add the private VLAN.<br />Add the switch in VTP transparent mode. Manually add all VLANs to the switch.<br /><br />21<br />Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?<br />all hosts<br />Host B and the router<br />**Host C and the router<br />the router, Host C, and all the hosts connected to Hub1<br /><br />22<br />Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)<br />An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.<br />**Standardized trunking protocol is used.<br />A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.<br />**The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.<br />**Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.<br />Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default administrative VLAN.<br /><br />23<br />Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are listed beneath each interface. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which three port results are correct? (Choose three.)<br />**S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.<br />S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.<br />S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.<br />**S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.<br />S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.<br />**S1 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.<br /><br />24<br />Refer to the exhibit. Switches C1, D1, D2, and S2 have all been configured with RSTP. S1 and S3 are not capable of rapid PVST+ and are in the default configuration. What three implications does this have for the Layer 2 network? (Choose three.)<br />Because S1 and S3 are not trunking, they have no spanning-tree instance.<br />A topology change BPDU from C1 forces the uplinks on S1 and S3 to stop forwarding traffic for twice the forward delay time.<br />**Port Gi0/1 on D1 and port Gi0/1 on D2 become designated ports.<br />**Loss of the root port link on S2 causes a rapid transition to non-designated port on S2.<br />**PortFast can be enabled on all ports on S1 and S3.<br />Gi0/1 on S1 and Gi0/1 on S3 become designated ports.<br /><br />25<br />Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?<br />The SSH version number is wrong.<br />**SSH has been configured on the wrong line.<br />The transport input command is configured incorrectly.<br />Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.<br /><br />26<br />Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?<br />802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.<br />**802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type or length fields.<br />802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.<br />802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type or length fields.<br /><br />27<br />Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)<br />**This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.<br />A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.<br />Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.<br />**Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.<br />The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.<br /><br />28<br />Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)<br />**It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.<br />It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.<br />**It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.<br />It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.<br />It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.<br /><br />29<br />Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)<br />**A router is required to forward traffic between the hosts.<br />**The switch ports are on different VLANs.<br />The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.<br />The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.<br />The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.<br />**The hosts are configured on different logical networks.<br /><br />30<br />What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?<br />A new RSA key pair is created.<br />The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.<br />The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.<br />**The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.<br />31<br />How can the SSID for a wireless network connection be verified?<br />From the Network Connections menu, choose Add Wireless Network.<br />From the Network Connections menu, choose Properties.<br />**From the Network Connections menu, choose View Wireless Network.<br />From the Network Connections menu, choose Support.<br /><br />32<br />In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?<br />client<br />root<br />server<br />**transparent<br />nontransparent<br /><br />33<br />Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for VLANs 40 and 50 as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another across the different switches?<br />**trunking<br />STP<br />VTP<br />routing<br /><br />34<br />Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?<br />It is configured in privileged EXEC mode.<br />It encrypts only line mode passwords.<br />**As soon as the service password-encryption command is entered, all currently set passwords formerly displayed in plain text are encrypted.<br />To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command in plain text, issue the no service password-encryption command.<br /><br />35<br />Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?<br />The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.<br />The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.<br />**The switch is sending and receiving data frames.<br />The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.<br /><br />36<br />Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?<br />The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.<br />The network diameter limitation is 9.<br />Convergence is slower as the BPDU travels away from the root.<br />**BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.<br /><br />37<br />Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. How far is the collision propagated?<br />hub HB1<br />**switch SW1<br />switch SW2<br />router R1<br />router R2<br /><br />38<br />Which method establishes an administrative connection to the wireless access point?<br />Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.<br />Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.<br />**From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.<br />Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.<br /><br />39<br />Refer to the exhibit. All the VLANs configured on S2 are present on S1 but not S3. All switches are set to VTP server mode and have identical VTP domain names configured. What is the likely problem?<br />**The connection from S1 to S3 is not trunking.<br />S3 does not have a management VLAN configured.<br />The VLAN 99 interface on S3 is in a different subnet than S1 and S2.<br />S3 was joined to the network with a lower revision number than S1.<br /><br />40<br />Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network are interconnected via trunk links with VTP pruning enabled on all three switches. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?<br />**VLAN 10 and VLAN 20<br />VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20<br />VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005<br />VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005<br /><br />41<br />Refer to the exhibit. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 1. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?<br />The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.<br />The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.<br />**The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.<br />The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.<br />The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.<br /><br />42<br />Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?<br />**The newly inserted switch has a higher VTP server revision number, which caused the VLAN information in the VTP domain to be deleted.<br />The newly inserted switch has pruning enabled, which causes pruning of all VLANs from the trunk port.<br />The newly inserted switch received more VLANs from a connected switch than the switch can support.<br />Switches can exchange VTP information only through an access link.<br /><br />43<br />Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/0 is configured as an edge port?<br />SW1 port F0/0 transitions to the learning state.<br />**SW1 port F0/0 can generate a temporary loop while in the sync state.<br />SW1 port F0/0 becomes a non-designated port.<br />SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.<br />SW4 port F0/10 is forced into the blocking state.<br /><br />44<br />Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?<br />**forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3<br />add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table<br />forward the frame out Interface3<br />discard the frame<br />forward the frame out all interfaces<br />forward the frame out Interface2<br /><br />45<br />Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows the switch to provide power to which two types of devices? (Choose two.)<br />printer<br />**wireless access points<br />desktop PC<br />**IP phones<br />Scanners<br /><br />46<br />Refer to the exhibit. Three new VLANs have been configured to improve the performance of the network. Host A would like to send a frame destined to Host B. Which statement is true about the process of sending the frame?<br />Host A sends an ARP request to the default gateway configured for VLAN10 to resolve destination MAC to IP address mapping. Then the frame is sent to switch SW1 only to switch the traffic to Host B.<br />**Host A sends an ARP request to the default gateway for VLAN10 to resolve destination MAC to IP address mapping. Then the frame is sent to router R1 to route the traffic to the appropriate VLAN.<br />Host A broadcasts an ARP request to the members of all VLANs. If none of the hosts replies with a corresponding IP address, the frame is dropped.<br />Because Host A and Host B are connected to the same switch SW1, Host A forwards the frame to Host B directly.<br /><br />47<br />Which command finds the next available parameter for the SwitchX# clock command with the fewest keystrokes?<br />SwitchX# clock?<br />SwitchX# clock then Tab<br />SwitchX# clock then Ctrl-P<br />**SwitchX# clock ?<br />SwitchX# clock then "help"<br /><br />48<br />Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)<br />makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interface<br />**requires the use of subinterfaces on the router<br />requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shut command<br />**can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface<br />requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch<br />**more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces<br /><br />49<br />Refer to the exhibit. Two switches, SW1 and SW2, are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A is on the native VLAN. How does untagged traffic coming from Host A traverse the trunk link?<br />SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.<br />SW1 tags the traffic with the highest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.<br />**The untagged traffic is forwarded as part of the native VLAN.<br />The untagged traffic is dropped because the trunk forwards only tagged frames.<br />SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1p encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.<br />SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.<br /><br />50<br />Refer to the exhibit. What encryption algorithm does the 802.11i standard employ for data encryption?<br />PSK<br />TKIP<br />WEP<br />**AES<br /><br />51<br />A network administrator is tasked to select hardware to support a large enterprise, switched network. The system requires redundant backplane interconnections between eight high port density switches. Which hardware solution would be appropriate for this enterprise?<br />modular switches<br />fixed configuration switches<br />**stackable switches<br />uplink capable switches<br />link aggregated switches<br /><br />52<br />Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?<br />**Cat-A<br />Cat-B<br />Cat-C<br />Cat-D<br /><br />53<br />What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)<br />**Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.<br />The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.<br />**The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.<br />The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.<br />Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.<br /><br />54<br />Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)<br />VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.<br />**All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.<br />Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.<br />**All interfaces are set to auto.<br />Enable password is configured as cisco.<br />**The flash directory contains the IOS image.<br /><br />55<br />An access point supports both the 802.11g and 802.11b standards. A device that supports only 802.11b attempts to connect to the access point. What happens to the connection?<br />The network does not connect unless the user is within line of sight of the access point.<br />**The access point and all other connected users defer to the 802.11b standard.<br />The access point always maintains the higher standard and automatically upgrades the 802.11b device to the 802.11g speed.<br />Each user gets the speed supported by the wireless NIC on their mobile device.<br /><br />56<br />Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?<br />Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.<br />**Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.<br />Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.<br />Trunk mode can be configured on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces only.<br /><br />57<br />What two tasks must be performed when deleting an entire VLAN? (Choose two.)<br />Delete the vlan.dat file from flash.<br />Reboot the switch in order for the changes to take effect.<br />**Use the negative form of the command that was used to create the VLAN.<br />**Reassign the switch ports from the deleted VLAN to other VLANs if they are to be used.<br />Use the erase vlan command in global configuration mode.<br /><br />58<br />How does an Ethernet switch handle traffic if the shared memory buffers and the port memory buffers are full?<br />The switch allocates additional buffers in NVRAM.<br />The switch defragments the frame and stores it in NVRAM.<br />The switch routes the packet to the destination port.<br />**The switch drops the traffic.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-55611524221538685832009-10-20T10:44:00.001-07:002009-10-20T10:44:12.143-07:00CCNA 3 Module 7 Version 4.0 Answers1. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)<br />• 802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.<br />The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.<br />802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.<br />802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.<br />• 802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.<br /><br />2. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)<br />802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.<br />• Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.<br />The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.<br />• 802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.<br />A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.<br /><br />3. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?<br />set up WEP on the access point only<br />• set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it<br />set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the network open<br />set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point settings open<br /><br />4. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?<br />Network Mode<br />• Network Name (SSID)<br />Radio Band<br />Wide Channel<br />Standard Channel<br /><br />5. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)<br />MAC address filtering prevents the contents of wireless frames from being viewable.<br />Providing a wireless client with the network key allows an available network to be visible.<br />Disabling an access point from broadcasting the SSID prevents the access point from being discovered.<br />• Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections.<br />• Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.<br /><br />6. Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?<br />• This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.<br />The RF power settings might be set too low on the wireless access points servicing the room. Increase the RF output power on all wireless access points.<br />Install a new wireless access point in this center area to provide coverage.<br />Verify that the wireless access points have sufficient in-line power and connectivity to the wired network.<br /><br />7. Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)<br />• gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures<br />• built-in Ethernet switch<br />network management station<br />VTP server<br />• wireless access point<br />VPN concentrator<br /><br />8. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?<br />CSMA/CD<br />token passing<br />• CSMA/CA<br />polling<br /><br />9. Why is security so important in wireless networks?<br />Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.<br />Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.<br />• Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.<br />Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.<br /><br />10. Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards, but has greater performance?<br />802.11a<br />802.11b<br />802.11g<br />• 802.11n<br /><br />11. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)<br />• A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.<br />Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.<br />Using encryption prevents unauthorized clients from associating with an access point.<br />An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.<br />• With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.<br /><br />12. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?<br />• site survey<br />risk assessment<br />scalability design<br />network protocol analysis<br /><br />13. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?<br />authentication<br />SSID broadcasting<br />• MAC address filtering<br />EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)<br />Radius (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)<br /><br />14. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?<br />beacon<br />password<br />• probe request<br />association request<br /><br />15. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?<br />to keep users segregated on separate subnets<br />to control the amount of bandwidth that is utilized<br />• to keep signals from interfering with each other<br />to keep traffic secure<br /><br />16. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?<br />converts clear text data before transmission<br />indicates which channel the data should flow on<br />• determines that the correct host is utilizing the network<br />allows the host to choose which channel to use<br /><br />17. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?<br />Authorized access points can transmit excess traffic to rogue access points to help alleviate congestion.<br />• Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.<br />All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be encrypted.<br />All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be required to authenticate.<br /><br />18. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?<br />• Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.<br />Enable access points to send an SSID to each device wanting to use the network.<br />Configure MAC filtering on all authorized access points.<br />Disable SSID broadcasts.<br /><br />19. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?<br />dynamically assigns an IP address to the host<br />provides local DHCP services<br />• converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation<br />provides a gateway for connecting to other networks<br /><br />20. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?<br />bandwidth saturation<br />privacy concerns<br />• media contention<br />device interoperability<br /><br />21. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?<br />association response<br />• beacon<br />key<br />probe requestUnknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-33742923151841696652009-10-20T10:43:00.005-07:002009-10-20T10:43:52.536-07:00CCNA 3 Module 6 Version 4.0 Answers1. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)<br /><br />• This design will not scale easily.<br />The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.<br />• This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.<br />This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.<br />This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.<br />• If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.<br /><br />2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?<br />• Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.<br />Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.<br />Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.<br />Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.<br /><br />3. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?<br /><br />R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.<br />S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.<br />• S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.<br />S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.<br /><br />4. Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?<br /><br />The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.<br />• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.<br />The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.<br />The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet. The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.<br /><br />5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?<br />Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.<br />Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.<br />• Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.<br />Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.<br /><br />6. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?<br />When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address to send in response to ARP requests.<br />When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MAC address of the port to which the PC is connected.<br />• When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.<br />When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.<br /><br />7. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)<br />subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth<br />more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing<br />• fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing<br />simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing<br />• less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing<br /><br />8. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)<br />• one subinterface per VLAN<br />one physical interface for each subinterface<br />• one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface<br />one trunked link per VLAN<br />a management domain for each subinterface<br />• a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface<br /><br />9. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)<br /><br />• Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.<br />Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.<br />Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.<br />• Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.<br />Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.<br />Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.<br /><br />10. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?<br /><br />• R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.<br />R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.<br />Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.<br />The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdown command yet.<br /><br />11. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?<br /><br />PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.<br />The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.<br />An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.<br />• The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.<br /><br />12. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?<br /><br />PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.<br />• The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.<br />The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.<br />The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.<br /><br />13. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?<br />Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routing between VLANs.<br />• Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.<br />Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet, thereby allowing communication between VLANs.<br />Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.<br /><br />14. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)<br />The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.<br />• The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.<br />• The command configures a subinterface.<br />The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.<br />Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP address.<br /><br />15. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)<br /><br />The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.<br />• Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.<br />A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLAN routing to be successful.<br />• Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.16.10.0/24 and 172.16.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.<br />Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical interface as their default gateway.<br /><br />16. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?<br />Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.<br />Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.<br />Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing protocol on the router.<br />• Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.<br /><br />17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?<br /><br />Port 0/4 is not active.<br />Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.<br />• Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.<br />Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.<br /><br />18. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?<br />The physical interface must have an IP address configured.<br />The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.<br />The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.<br />• The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.<br /><br />19. In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?<br />a network with high traffic requirements<br />• a network with a limited number of VLANs<br />a network with experienced support personnel<br />a network using a router with one LAN interface<br /><br />20. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:<br />Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other. Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other. Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs. Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?<br /><br />The router interface is shut down.<br />The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.<br />All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.<br />• The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.<br />The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-89100367238772819882009-10-20T10:43:00.003-07:002009-10-20T10:43:33.431-07:00CCNA 3 Module 5 Version 4.0 Answers1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)<br /><br />The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.<br />*Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.<br />All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.<br />Root switches have all ports set as root ports.<br />* Non-root switches each have only one root port.<br /><br />2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)<br /><br />They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.<br />*They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.<br />Only the root bridge will send out a BID.<br />*They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.<br />The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.<br /><br />3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)<br /><br />to negotiate a trunk between switches<br />to set the duplex mode of a redundant link<br />*to identify the shortest path to the root bridge<br />to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches<br />*to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree<br /><br />4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)<br /><br />*immediately loses its edge status<br />inhibits the generation of a TCN<br />goes immediately to a learning state<br />disables itself<br />*becomes a normal spanning-tree port<br /><br /><br />5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?<br /><br />ImageSwitch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.<br />*Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.<br />Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.<br />Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.<br /><br />6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)<br />*PortFast is Cisco proprietary.<br />PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.<br />PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.<br />Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.<br />*If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.<br /><br />7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?<br /><br />Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.<br />Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.<br />*Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.<br />The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.<br /><br />8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?<br /><br />*election of the root bridge<br />blocking of the non-designated ports<br />selection of the designated trunk port<br />determination of the designated port for each segment<br /><br />9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?<br /><br />Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.<br />Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.<br />Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.<br />*Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.<br /><br />10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?<br />Image<br />panning tree blocks Gi 0/1 on S3.<br />*Gi 0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.<br />Port priority makes Gi 0/2 on S1 a root port.<br />S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.<br /><br />11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)<br /><br />*the max-age timer<br />the spanning-tree hold down timer<br />*the forward delay<br />the spanning-tree path cost<br />the blocking delay<br /><br />12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?<br /><br />blocking<br />*Learning<br />disabling<br />listening<br />forwarding<br /><br />13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)<br /><br />RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.<br />RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.<br />*Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.<br />Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.<br />*Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.<br />*Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.<br /><br />14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)<br /><br />*one root bridge per network<br />all non-designated ports forwarding<br />*one root port per non-root bridge<br />multiple designated ports per segment<br />one designated port per network<br /><br />15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?<br /><br />STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format.<br />STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.<br />STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.<br />*STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.<br /><br />16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?<br /><br />Two hosts communicating between ports Fa 0/2 and Fa 0/4 have a cost of 38.<br />*The priority was statically configured to identify the root.<br />STP is disabled on this switch.<br />The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.<br /><br />17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)<br /><br />*bridge priority<br />switching speed<br />number of ports<br />*base MAC address<br />switch location<br />memory size<br /><br />18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)<br /><br />*Shared<br />end-to-end<br />*edge-type<br />boundary-type<br />point-to-many<br />*point-to-point<br /><br />19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?<br /><br />alternate<br />backup<br />*Designated<br />root<br /><br />20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?<br /><br />bridge priority<br />MAC address<br />protocol<br />*VLAN IDUnknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-88599857864924110472009-10-20T10:43:00.001-07:002009-10-20T10:43:16.888-07:00CCNA 3 Module 4 Version 4.0 Answers1. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches shown in the exhibit. What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)<br />Switch2 is in transparent mode.<br />Switch1 is in client mode.<br />• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.<br />Switch2 is in server mode.<br />• Switch1 is in a different management domain.<br />Switch1 has no VLANs.<br /><br />2. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the output provided, what could be done to fix the problem?<br />The switches must be interconnected via access link.<br />Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.<br />Both switches must be configured as VTP clients.<br />Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.<br />• The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.<br /><br />3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)<br />• If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own<br />• VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.<br />This switch shows no configuration revision errors.<br />This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.<br />This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.<br />This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.<br /><br />4. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)<br />Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.<br />• Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.<br />• Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.<br />Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.<br />Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.<br /><br />5. Refer to the exhibit. Switch2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to Switch2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After Switch2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What is the quickest way to solve the problem?<br />Reset the revision number on Switch2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.<br />Change Switch1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat, and then change back to server mode.<br />Change Switch2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically repopulate.<br />• Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they repropagate throughout the network.<br /><br />6. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?<br />A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.<br />A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.<br />• A five-minute update timer has elapsed.<br />The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.<br /><br />7. Which two statements describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)<br />• can add VLANs of local significance only<br />can only adopt VLAN management changes<br />• can create and adopt updated VLAN management information<br />can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes<br />can add VLANs to domain<br />cannot add VLANs<br /><br />8 Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?<br />VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.<br />VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.<br />A switch configured for VTP can belong to more than one VTP domain.<br />• VTP dynamically communicates VLAN additions, deletions and modifications to all switches in the same VTP domain.<br />VTP advertisements are passed over access links to other switches.<br /><br />9. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?<br />All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.<br />Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.<br />• SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.<br />Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.<br /><br />10. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?<br />It verifies the configured VTP password.<br />It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.<br />• It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.<br />It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.<br /><br />11. Which statement is true about the VTP pruning process?<br />VTP pruning automatically updates all switches within the VTP domain with VLAN information.<br />VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-eligible VLANs.<br />VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-ineligible VLANs.<br />• VTP pruning prevents flooded traffic from crossing trunk links to switches that do not need to process the flood traffic.<br /><br />12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?<br />VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.<br />Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.<br />• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.<br />There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.<br />Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.<br /><br />13. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?<br />It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.<br />• It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.<br />It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.<br />It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.<br />It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.<br /><br />14. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)<br />revision number<br />• domain name<br />pruning<br />mode<br />• domain password<br />• version number<br /><br />15. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab Network?<br />The switch operates as a VTP client.<br />switch operates in VTP transparent mode.<br />• The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.<br />The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.<br /><br />16. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be?<br />S2 loses all VLANs until the cable is reconnected.<br />S2 automatically transitions to VTP transparent mode.<br />• S2 does not send a VTP request advertisement unless it is reloaded.<br />S2 automatically sends a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.<br /><br />17. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)<br />• Switches must be connected via trunks.<br />• The VTP domain name is case sensitive.<br />Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.<br />The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.<br />Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-61051583700587091422009-10-20T10:42:00.002-07:002009-10-20T10:43:00.093-07:00CCNA 3 Module 3 Version 4.0 Answers1. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?<br />802.1q is Cisco proprietary.<br />802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.<br />802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.<br />• 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.<br /><br />2. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)<br />VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.<br />VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.<br />VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.<br />• VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.<br />• VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.<br /><br />3. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)<br />VLAN1 should renamed.<br />• VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.<br />• All switch ports are members of VLAN1.<br />Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.<br />Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.<br /><br />4. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?<br />Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.<br />• Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.<br />Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode.<br />Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface.<br /><br />5. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?<br />A<br />A, B<br />A, B, D, G<br />A, D, F<br />• C, E<br />C, E, F<br /><br />6. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)<br />• The VLANs may be named.<br />VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.<br />Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.<br />• The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.<br />Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations.<br /><br />7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)<br />The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.<br />The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.<br />A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.<br />• The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.<br />• Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.<br /><br />8. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?<br />• The ports cannot communicate with other ports.<br />The ports default back to the management VLAN.<br />The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1.<br />The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.<br /><br />9. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?<br />• VLAN 1 can never be deleted.<br />VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.<br />VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.<br />VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.<br /><br />10. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?<br />DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN.<br />The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic desirable.<br />The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.<br />• A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.<br /><br />11. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?<br />Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol.<br />• The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.<br />By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link.<br />A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches.<br /><br />12. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?<br />Disable DTP.<br />Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.<br />Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.<br />• Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.<br /><br />13. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?<br />The link between the switches is up but not trunked.<br />VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches.<br />The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.<br />• Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.<br /><br />14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?<br />There is a native VLAN mismatch.<br />The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.<br />The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.<br />• VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.<br /><br />15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?<br />The default native VLAN is being used.<br />The trunking mode is set to auto.<br />• Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.<br />VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.<br /><br />16. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?<br />Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk.<br />• Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.<br />Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.<br />Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their network.<br /><br />17. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?<br />none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame<br />computer A, computer B, computer C<br />computer A, computer D, computer G<br />computer B, computer C<br />• computer D, computer G<br />computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer H, computer I<br /><br />18. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?<br />Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs.<br />• A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.<br />Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage.<br />Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.<br /><br />19. Which two statements about the 802.1q trunking protocol are true? (Choose two.)<br />802.1q is Cisco proprietary.<br />802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.<br />• If 802.1q is used on a frame, the FCS must be recalculated.<br />• 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.<br />802.1q allows the encapsulation of the original frame to identify the VLAN from which a frame originated.<br /><br />20. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?<br />dynamic desirable mode<br />on or dynamic desirable mode<br />• on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode<br />on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode<br /><br />21. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?<br />The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10 on S3.<br />The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port.<br />• PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs.<br />A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches.<br /><br />22. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?<br />Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.<br />• Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.<br />Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.<br />Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-64723415638867466822009-10-20T10:42:00.001-07:002009-10-20T10:42:36.155-07:00CCNA 3 Module 2 Version 4.0 Answers1. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?<br /><br />**The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.<br />The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.<br />The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.<br />The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.<br /><br />2. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?<br /><br />**No collisions will occur on this link.<br />Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.<br />The switch will have priority for transmitting data.<br />The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.<br /><br />3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?<br /><br />SW1 drops the frame.<br />**SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.<br />SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.<br />SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.<br /><br />4. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?<br />The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.<br />The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.<br />**The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.<br />The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.<br /><br />5. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?<br />**workstation C<br />workstations B and C<br />workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router<br />workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router<br /><br />6. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?<br /><br />1<br />**2<br />4<br />6<br />7<br />8<br /><br />7. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)<br /><br />Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.<br />**Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.<br />Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.<br />Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.<br />**Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.<br /><br />8. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?<br /><br />user EXEC mode<br />privileged EXEC mode<br />**global configuration mode<br />interface configuration mode<br /><br />9. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information? append ?<br /><br />to the last parameter<br />**append a space and then ? to the last parameter<br />use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list.<br />use the Tab key to show which options are available<br /><br />10. Where is the startup configuration stored?<br /><br />DRAM<br />**NVRAM<br />ROM<br />startup-config.text<br /><br />11. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?<br /><br />**Switch1(config-line)# line console 0<br />Switch1(config-line)# password cisco<br />Switch1(config-line)# login<br /><br />12. to secure the console port with the password “cisco” to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access problem?<br /><br />incorrect vty lines configured<br />incompatible Secure Shell version<br />incorrect default gateway address<br />**vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet<br /><br />13. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)<br /><br />The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.<br />**The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.<br />**The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.<br />The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password. Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.<br /><br />14. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from the output shown?<br /><br />The enable password is encrypted by default.<br />An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.<br />**Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.<br />This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.<br /><br />15. Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a switch?<br /><br />The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.<br />**The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.<br />The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: “banner motd” ” to be displayed.<br />The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.<br /><br />16. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)<br /><br />Enable CDP on the switch.<br />**Change passwords regularly.<br />**Turn off unnecessary services.<br />Enable the HTTP server on the switch.<br />Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.<br /><br />17. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)<br /><br />The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.<br />**Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.<br />The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.<br />After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.<br />**If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.<br /><br />18. o.O Is there an 18?<br /><br />19. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?<br /><br />**Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.<br />Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.<br />Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.<br />Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.<br /><br />20. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?<br /><br />The SSH client on the switch is enabled.<br />**Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.<br />A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.<br />The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.<br /><br />21. Refer to the exhibit. A user on PC1 experiences a delay when accessing applications on the server. What two statements about latency are true? (Choose two.)<br /><br />Each hop in the path adds delay to the overall latency.<br />**Placing the bits on the wire at PC1 is propagation delay.<br />Total latency depends solely on the number of devices in the path.<br />**The NIC delay at points A and F contributes to the overall latency.<br />The time it takes for an electrical signal to transit the segment from point C to point D is the cause for the propagation delay.<br />Because optimized routing algorithms are faster than switching algorithms, routers R1 and R2 are expected to add less latency than switches SW1 and SW2.<br /><br />22. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?<br /><br />hosts A and B<br />hosts D and E<br />hosts A, B, and C<br />**hosts A, B, C, D, and E<br />hosts A, B, C, D, E, and FUnknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-37354853127967278962009-10-20T10:40:00.000-07:002009-10-20T10:42:08.690-07:00CCNA 3 Module 1 Version 4.0 Answers1. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)<br /><br />forwarding rate<br />*traffic flow analysis<br />*expected future growth<br />number of required core connections<br />number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance<br /><br />2. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?<br /><br />Layer 1<br />*Layer 3<br />Layer 4<br />Layer 5<br /><br />3. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?<br />Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.<br /><br />The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.<br />*A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.<br />QoS issues are greatly reduced.<br />There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams.<br /><br />4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?<br />application<br />access<br />*distribution<br />network<br />core<br /><br />5. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)<br />port security<br />security policies<br />*10 Gigabit Ethernet<br />*quality of service (QoS)<br />*hot-swappable hardware<br />Power over Ethernet (PoE)<br /><br />6. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)<br /><br />*security policies<br />Power over Ethernet<br />switch port security<br />*quality of service<br />*Layer 3 functionality<br />end user access to network<br /><br />7. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)<br /><br />Power over Ethernet<br />load balancing across redundant trunk links<br />redundant components<br />*Quality of Service<br />*link aggregation<br /><br />8. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)<br /><br />low port density<br />*high forwarding rate<br />high latency level<br />*support link aggregation<br />predefined number of ports<br /><br />9. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?<br /><br />core only<br />distribution and core<br />access and distribution<br />*access, distribution, and core<br /><br />10. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?<br /><br />Power over Ethernet<br />*quality of service<br />switch port security<br />inter-VLAN routing<br /><br />11. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?<br /><br />application<br />*access<br />distribution<br />network<br />core<br /><br />12. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?<br /><br />core layer<br />distribution layer<br />*access layer<br />entry layer<br /><br />13. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?<br /><br />Layer 1<br />*Layer 2<br />Layer 3<br />Layer 4<br /><br />14. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?<br /><br />scalability<br />security<br />*redundancy<br />maintainability<br /><br />15. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?<br /><br />access layer<br />*core layer<br />data-link layer<br />distribution layer<br />network layer<br />physical layer<br /><br />16. What statement best describes a modular switch?<br /><br />a slim-line chassis<br />allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane<br />defined physical characteristics<br />*flexible characteristics<br /><br />17. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?<br /><br />StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.<br />StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling.<br />StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards.<br />*StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.<br /><br />18. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?<br /><br />PoE<br />*redundancy<br />aggregation<br />access lists<br /><br />19. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?<br /><br />convergence<br />redundant links<br />*link aggregation<br />network diameter<br /><br />20. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?<br /><br />Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.<br />*Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.<br />Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.<br />Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-15863568724864391042009-10-18T10:28:00.001-07:002009-10-18T10:28:34.810-07:00CCNA 2 Final 2 Version 4.0 Answers1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)<br />from R1 to 172.16.1.1<br />** from R1 to 192.168.3.1<br />from R2 to 192.168.1.1<br />from R2 to 192.168.3.1<br />** from R3 to 192.168.1.1<br /><br />2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?<br />** It will append the update information to the routing table.<br />It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.<br />It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.<br />It will ignore the new update.<br /><br />3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)<br />They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.<br />They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.<br />They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.<br />** They are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology.<br />** They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.<br /><br />4. A network administrator needs to configure a single router to loadbalance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?<br />EIGRP<br />OSPF<br />RIPv1<br />** RIPv2<br /><br />5. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)<br />It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.<br />** It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.<br />** It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.<br />It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.<br />It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.<br /><br />6. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run on one of the devices as shown. Based on this information, which two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)<br />** The command was run on the router.<br />ABCD is a non CISCO device.<br />Layer 3 connectivity between two devices exists.<br />ABCD supports routing capability.<br />** ABCD is connected to the Fa0/0 interface of the neighboring device.<br /><br />7. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?<br />R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.<br />The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.<br />The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.<br />** R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.<br /><br />8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)<br />The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.<br />Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.<br />**The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.<br />** Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.<br />Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.<br />** No default route has been configured.<br /><br />9. Refer to the exhibit. All the routers are properly configured to use the RIP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?<br />Router A will send the data via the ADE path that is listed in the routing table.<br />Router A will loadbalance the traffic between ABE and ACE.<br />** Router A will determine that all paths have equal metric cost.<br />Router A will send the data through ADE and keep ABE and ACE as the backup paths.<br /><br />10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1.<br />R1# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2What is the result of running this command?<br />** Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.<br />This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.<br />Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.<br />The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.2.0.<br /><br />11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?<br />** the IP address of the server<br />the default gateway of host A<br />the IP address of host A<br />the default gateway of the server<br /><br />12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command:<br />network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0<br />Which router interface will participate in OSPF?<br />FastEthernet 0/0<br />FastEthernet 0/1<br />** Serial 0/0/0<br />Serial 0/0/1<br /><br />13. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to run RIPv1 and are fully converged. Which routing updates will be received by R3?<br />updates for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24<br />updates for 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24<br />** updates for 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24<br />updates for 172.16.0.0/16<br /><br />14. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem?<br />** The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.<br />R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.<br />The R1 configuration should include the no autosummary command.<br />The maximum path number has been exceeded.<br /><br />15. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?<br />ROM, TFTP server, flash<br />flash, TFTP server, RAM<br />** flash, NVRAM, TFTP server<br />ROM, flash, TFTP server<br /><br />16. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?<br />Router1<br />Router2<br />Router3<br />** Router4<br /><br />17. Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity?<br />** route poisoning<br />split horizon<br />holddown timer<br />triggered updates<br /><br />18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120?<br />It is the metric that is calculated by the routing protocol.<br />It is the value that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.<br />** It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.<br />It is the holddown time, measured in seconds, before the next update.<br /><br />19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)<br />There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.<br />The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.<br />**The no cdp run command has been run at R1.<br />**The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.R1 is powered off.<br /><br />20. Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)<br />** a CSU/DSU device<br />** a modem<br />an Ethernet switch<br />a hub<br />a bridge<br /><br />21. In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24 via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after the discovery of all four paths?<br />R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.110.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/0<br />R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/0<br />** R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/1<br />R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/4] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/1<br /><br />22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator accesses router R1 from the console port to configure a newly connected interface. What passwords will the network administrator need to enter to make the connection and the necessary configuration changes?<br />the Cisco123 password only<br />the Cisco789 password only<br />the Cisco001 password only<br />** the Cisco001 password and the Cisco789 passwords<br />the Cisco001 password and the Cisco123 passwords<br /><br />23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?<br />This route is automatically propagated throughout the network.<br />The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.<br />** A static route is established.<br />The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.<br /><br />24. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.5.79. How will the router handle this packet?<br />It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/1 interface.<br />It will forward the packet via the FastEthernet0/0 interface.<br />It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/0 interface.<br />** It will drop the packet.<br /><br />25. Which two statements are true about classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)<br />** They can be used for discontiguous subnets.<br />** They can forward supernet routes in routing updates.<br />They cannot implement classful routes in routing tables.<br />They use only a hop count metric.<br />They do not include the subnet mask in routing updates.<br /><br />26. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?<br />1<br />3<br />** 4<br />6<br /><br />27. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what two ways does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? (Choose two.)<br />It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to reestablish neighbor adjacencies.<br />** It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.<br />It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.<br />It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until the lost route is unknown to the neighbors.<br />** It automatically forwards traffic to a fallback default route until a successor route is found.<br /><br />28. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)<br />** 10.0.0.0/8<br />64.100.0.0/16<br />128.107.0.0/16<br />172.16.40.0/24<br />192.168.1.0/24<br />** 192.168.2.0/24<br /><br />29. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)<br />The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.<br />** All routes are stable.<br />** The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.<br />The serial interface between the two routers is down.<br />Each route has one feasible successor.<br /><br />30. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. Which path will be used to transmit the data?<br />The data will be transmitted via R3-R2.<br />** The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.<br />The traffic will be loadbalanced between two paths — one via R3-R2, and the other via R3-R1-R2.<br />The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained as the backup path.<br /><br />31. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?<br />** A(config)# router rip<br />A(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0<br />B(config)# router rip<br />B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.48<br />B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.64<br />A(config)# router rip<br />A(configrouter)# no network 192.168.25.32<br />B(config)# router rip<br />B(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0<br />A(config)# no router rip<br /><br />32. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts on the R1 LAN are unable to access the Internet. What is incorrectly configured?<br />the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface at R1<br />the IP address of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2<br />** the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface at R1<br />the subnet mask of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2<br /><br />33. Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to 192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem?<br />There is no gateway of last resort at R1.<br />The serial interface between the two routers is down.<br />** A default route is not configured on R1.<br />The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.<br /><br />34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the show ip protocol command on R1. What can be determined from the exhibited output?<br />The router is using RIPv2.<br />The router is not forwarding routing updates.<br />The router is receiving updates for both versions of RIP.<br />** The FastEthernet0/0 interface is down.<br /><br />35. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, all routes are advertised on all routers, and the network is fully converged. Which path will the data take to travel between 172.16.1.0/24 and 192.168.100.0/24?<br />It will travel via A, B, and C.<br />** It will travel via A, F, E, D, and C.<br />It will travel via A, G, H, and C.<br />The traffic will be loadbalanced on all paths.<br /><br />36. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)<br />Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value.<br />Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0 interface.<br />** Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.<br />** Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IPaddress on the other routers.<br />Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.<br /><br />37. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?<br />the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface of R1<br />the subnet mask of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1<br />** the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1<br />the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2<br /><br />38. Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?<br />** If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.<br />If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be loadbalanced on all paths.<br />If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.<br />If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.<br /><br />39. Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem?<br />Check if the interfaces of the routers are enabled.<br />** Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.<br />Check the process ID of both routers.<br />Check if CDP is enabled on all the routers.<br /><br />40. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?<br />R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.<br />** Automatic summarization is disabled.<br />The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.<br />A classful routing protocol is being used.<br /><br />41. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)<br />DRAM loads the bootstrap<br />RAM stores the operating system<br />Flash executes diagnostics at bootup<br />** NVRAM stores the configuration file<br />ROM stores the backup configuration file<br />** POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules<br /><br />42. Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a route?<br />RIPv1<br />RIPv2<br />OSPF<br />** EIGRP<br /><br />43. Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.)<br />the same process ID<br />** the same area ID<br />** network addresses and wildcard masks<br />the same router ID<br />the same loop back address<br /><br />44. Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1?<br />192.168.135.1<br />**192.168.142.1<br />192.168.144.1<br />192.168.128.1<br /><br />45. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is running RIP with default parameters. R1 has learned four different paths with the same metrics to network 192.168.6.0. Which path or paths will R1 use to forward a packet that is destined to 192.168.6.10?<br />** the first path that the router learned.<br />only the first two of the four paths that the router learned.<br />the last path that the router learned.<br />all four paths.<br /><br />46. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)<br />** It connects multiple IP networks.<br />It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.<br />** It determines the best path to send packets.<br />It manages the VLAN database.<br />It increases the size of the broadcast domain.<br /><br />47. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the routing process for this network?<br />A packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.<br />** The packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.<br />The no shutdown command needs to run on the Fa0/0 interface of R1.<br />The Fa0/0 interface of R2 could be configured with the IP address 172.16.4.1/24.<br /><br />48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?<br />Switch the cable with a known working cable.<br />** Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.<br />Configure the interface as a loopback interface.<br />Set the encapsulation for the interface.<br /><br />49. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2?<br />** R2(config)# router ospf 1<br />R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0<br />R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0<br />R2(config)# router ospf 1<br />R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0<br /><br />R2(config)# router ospf 2<br />R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0<br />R2(config)# router ospf 1<br />R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0<br />R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 1<br />R2(config)# router ospf 1<br />R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0<br />R2(configrouter)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1<br /><br />50. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)<br />** A static route will be updated in the routing table.<br />The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.<br />The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.<br />** The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.<br />All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.<br /><br />51. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and deencapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)<br />** The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.<br />The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.<br />** The router maintains the same source and destination IP.<br />** The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.<br />The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.<br />The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.<br /><br />52. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)<br />The routers must elect a designated router.<br />** The routers must agree on the network type.<br />** The routers must use the same dead interval.<br />The routers must exchange link state requests.<br />The routers must exchange database description packets.<br /><br />53. Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)<br />The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.<br />** R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.<br />R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.<br />The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.<br />** Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.<br /><br />54. Which two situations require the use of a linkstate protocol? (Choose two.)<br />** Fast convergence of the network is critical.<br />** The network is very large.<br />The network administrator has limited knowledge to configure and troubleshoot routing protocols.The network is a flat network.<br />The capacity of the router is low.<br /><br />55. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?<br />EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors.<br />The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established.<br />The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.<br />** Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.<br /><br />56. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?<br />An incorrect IP address is configured between the two routers.<br />No static route is configured on Router2.<br />** A routing loop has occurred.<br />No routing protocol is configured on either of the two routers.<br /><br />57. Refer to the exhibit. What summarization should R2 use to advertise its LAN networks to R1?<br />172.16.0.0/24<br />** 172.16.4.0/22<br />172.16.4.0/23<br />172.16.4.0/24Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-48175865931212607462009-10-18T10:25:00.000-07:002009-10-18T10:27:49.160-07:00CCNA 2 Final 1 Version 4.0 Answers1.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?<br />The address is in the wrong subnet.<br />***192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.<br />The default gateway is incorrect.<br />The host address and default gateway are swapped.<br /><br />2.<br /><br />Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?<br />It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.<br />It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.<br />***It is the metric, which is cost.<br />It is the administrative distance.<br /><br />3.<br /><br />Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)<br />***Paris(config)# router eigrp 100<br />Paris(config)# router eigrp<br />Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.6.0<br />***Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.7.0<br />***Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.8.0<br />Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.9.0<br /><br />4. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)<br />***tests Layer 2 connectivity<br />provides a layer of security<br />operates a OSI layers 2 and 3<br />***enabled by default on each interface<br />used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues<br />***provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled<br /><br />5.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)<br />the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416<br />192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors<br />***neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled.<br />***router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces.<br />all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements<br /><br />6. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)<br />***OSPF interval timers mismatch<br />gateway of last resort not redistributed<br />***interface network type mismatch<br />no loopback interface configured<br />administrative distance mismatch<br />***inconsistent authentication configuration<br /><br />7.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)<br />The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.<br />Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.<br />***The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.<br />***Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.<br />Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.<br />***No default route has been configured.<br /><br />8. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?<br />Router JAX has the wrong autonomoussystem number.<br />***The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.<br />Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router.<br />Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface.<br /><br />9. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?<br />All routing protocols use the same metrics.<br />EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.<br />***Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.<br />The larger metric generally represents the better path.<br /><br />10. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)<br />used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops<br />***prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad<br />***allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown<br />limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded<br />prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned<br />***permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network<br /><br />11. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?<br />D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0<br />O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0<br />R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0<br />***S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1<br /><br />12.<br /><br />The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?<br />The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.<br />The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.<br />The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.<br />The ip subnetzero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.<br />***The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.<br /><br />13. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and deencapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)<br />***The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.<br />The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.<br />***The router maintains the same source and destination IP.<br />***The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.<br />The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.<br />The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.<br /><br />14. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)<br />***network address<br />loopback address<br />autonomous system number<br />subnet mask<br />***wildcard mask<br />***area ID<br /><br />15.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?<br />The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.<br />The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.<br />The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.<br />The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.<br />***The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.<br /><br />16.<br /><br />Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)<br />***DCE<br />***CSU/DSU<br />LAN switch<br />***Modem<br />hub<br /><br />17. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)<br />***As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.<br />If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.<br />***If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.<br />***The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.<br />EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.<br />EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.<br /><br />18.<br /><br />The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?<br />The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.<br />***The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.<br />The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.<br />The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.<br /><br />19.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)<br />***10.0.0.0/8<br />64.100.0.0/16<br />128.107.0.0/16<br />172.16.40.0/24<br />192.168.1.0/24<br />***192.168.2.0/24<br /><br />20.<br /><br />Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?<br />Enter default routes in R1 and R2.<br />***Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.<br />Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a nexthop address.<br />Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.<br /><br />21.<br />When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?<br />D, SWH2<br />A, B, D<br />SWH1, SWH2<br />***B, D<br />SWH1, A, B<br />A, B, D, SWH1, SWH2<br /><br />22.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?<br />Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.<br />The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.<br />The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.<br />The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.<br />***The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.<br /><br />23.<br />A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?<br />A(config)# router rip<br />A(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0<br />B(config)# router rip<br />B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.48<br />B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.64<br />A(config)# router rip<br />A(configrouter)# no network 192.168.25.32<br />***B(config)# router rip<br />***B(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0<br />A(config)# no router rip<br /><br />24.<br />Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)<br />Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network<br />Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network<br />Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network<br />***Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network<br />***Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network<br />Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network<br /><br />25.<br />Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?<br />The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.<br />***DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.<br />Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.<br />Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.<br /><br />26.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)<br />***ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0<br />ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1<br />ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1<br />***ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2<br />ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0<br />ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1<br /><br />27.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?<br />static route to 10.1.0.0/22<br />RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23<br />RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24<br />***0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1<br /><br />28.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?<br />Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.<br />Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.<br />Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.<br />***Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.<br /><br />29.<br />Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)<br />The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.<br />***The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.<br />The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.<br />***The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.<br />The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.<br />***The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.<br /><br />30.<br />A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?<br />Router_A(configrouter)# ospf redistribute defaultroute<br />Router_B(configrouter)# ospf redistribute defaultroute<br />***Router_A(configrouter)# defaultinformation originate<br />Router_B(configrouter)# defaultinformation originate<br />Router_A(configrouter)# ip ospf updatedefault<br />Router_B(configrouter)# ip ospf updatedefault<br /><br />31.<br />Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?<br />***The packet will be dropped.<br />The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.<br />The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.<br />The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.<br /><br />32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?<br />172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1<br />172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9<br />***172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17<br />0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1<br /><br />33. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?<br />C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0<br />S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0<br />C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2<br />***S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2<br /><br />34. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?<br />Perform the POST routine.<br />Search for a backup IOS in ROM.<br />Load the bootstrap program from ROM.<br />Load the runningconfig file from RAM.<br />***Locate and load the startupconfig file from NVRAM.<br /><br />35. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?<br />It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.<br />***It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.<br />It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.<br />It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.<br /><br />36.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?<br />All passwords are encrypted.<br />Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.<br />***Only the enable password is encrypted.<br />Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.<br />Enable and console passwords are encrypted.<br /><br />37.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?<br />198.18.0.0/16<br />***198.18.48.0/21<br />198.18.32.0/22<br />198.18.48.0/23<br />198.18.49.0/23<br />198.18.52.0/22<br /><br />38.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?<br />All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.<br />***Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.<br />The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.<br />A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.<br /><br />39.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?<br />1<br />***2<br />3<br />4<br />5<br />6<br /><br />40. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?<br />The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.<br />***The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.<br />The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.<br />The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.<br /><br />41.<br />Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?<br />172.16.0.0/8<br />172.16.0.0/10<br />***172.16.0.0/13<br />172.16.0.0/20<br />172.16.0.0/24<br /><br />42. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?<br />clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.<br />prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad.<br />removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires<br />***limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded.<br />used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers<br /><br />43.<br />Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?<br />The JAX router has the wrong process ID.<br />The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.<br />***The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.<br />The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.<br /><br />44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?<br />R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0<br />R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0<br />R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0<br />***R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0<br /><br />45. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)<br />The routers must elect a designated router.<br />***The routers must agree on the network type.<br />***The routers must use the same dead interval.<br />The routers must exchange link state requests.<br />The routers must exchange database description packets.<br /><br />46.<br />Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?<br />Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.<br />The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.<br />The static route will not work correctly.<br />***Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.<br /><br />47.<br /><br />What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)<br />Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.<br />All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.<br />***Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.<br />Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.<br />An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.<br />***Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.<br /><br />48. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?<br />used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets<br />used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers<br />used to request more information about any entry in the BDR<br />***used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests<br /><br />49. What is the first step OSPF and ISIS routers take in building a shortest path first database?<br />***learn about directly connected networks<br />send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies<br />choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table<br />flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states<br /><br />50.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?<br />RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.<br />EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.<br />RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.<br />***EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.<br /><br />51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?<br />Reboot the routers.<br />Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.<br />Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX.<br />Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.<br />***Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.<br /><br />52.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?<br />triggered updates<br />poison reverse<br />hold-down timers<br />***split horizon<br /><br />53. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)<br />DRAM loads the bootstrap<br />RAM stores the operating system<br />Flash executes diagnostics at boot-up<br />***NVRAM stores the configuration file<br />ROM stores the backup configuration file<br />***POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules<br /><br />54. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)<br />***packet switching<br />microsegmentation<br />domain name resolution<br />***path selection<br />flow control<br /><br />55.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?<br />ADC<br />ABC<br />***It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC<br />It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.<br /><br />56.<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?<br />Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.<br />Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.<br />Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.<br />***Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.<br /><br />57. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)<br />They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.<br />***They are aware of the complete network topology.<br />They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.<br />***They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.<br />They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.<br />They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.<br /><br />58. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)<br />***OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.<br />RIP does not support classless routing.<br />***EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.<br />EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.<br />***RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.<br />OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.Unknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-40170588623761055902009-10-18T10:24:00.001-07:002009-10-18T10:24:33.906-07:00CCNA 2 Module 11 Version 4.0 Answers1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?<br />- an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.<br /><br />2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?<br />- 1786<br /><br />3. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)<br />- area id<br />- hello interval<br />- network type<br /><br />4. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)<br />- designated router<br />- backup designated router<br /><br />5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?<br />- bandwidth<br /><br />6. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?<br />- Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.<br /><br />7. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?<br />- B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0<br /><br />8. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?<br />- R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0<br /><br />9. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?<br />- The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.<br /><br />10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?<br />- The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.<br /><br />11. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?<br />- B(config)# router ospf 1B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5<br /><br />12. Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?<br />- 6<br /><br />13. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?<br />- 110<br /><br />14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR. What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?<br />- A(config)# interface fa0/0<br />A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255<br />D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.<br /><br />15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?<br />- 1787<br /><br />16. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?<br />- 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24<br /><br />17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?<br />- nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1<br /><br />18. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?<br />- A FULL adjacency is formed.<br /><br />19. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)<br />- DR for network 192.168.1.200<br />- BDR for network 192.168.1.204<br /><br />20. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?<br />- OSPF hello or dead timers do not match<br /><br />21. Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?<br />- RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6<br />RouterB(config)# router ospf 10<br />RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate<br /><br />22. Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?<br />- There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.<br /><br />23. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)<br />- Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.<br />- Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.<br /><br />24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)<br />- Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.<br />- HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.<br />- Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.<br /><br />25. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?<br />- hello packetsUnknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-21284940595191462682009-10-18T10:20:00.000-07:002009-10-18T10:24:06.226-07:00CCNA 2 Module 10 Version 4.0 Answers1 What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?<br /><br />• floods the LSP to neighbors<br />calculates the SPF algorithm<br />runs the Bellman-Ford algorithm<br />computes the best path to the destination network<br /><br />2 Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?<br /><br />Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.<br />Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.<br />• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.<br />Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.<br /><br />3<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?<br /><br />hop count<br />uptime of the route<br />• cost of the link<br />a list of all the routing protocols in use<br /><br />4 To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)<br /><br />use automatic summarization to reduce the size of routing tables<br />• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link<br />• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database<br />discover neighbors and establish adjacencies using the hello packet sent at regular intervals<br />• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network<br />use the DUAL FSM to select efficient, loop-free paths, and insert routes into the routing table<br /><br />5<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?<br /><br />It sends LSP packets to Routers B and C.<br />It sends LSP packets to all routers in the network.<br />It sends Hello packets to all routers in the network.<br />It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to Routers A and E.<br />It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to all routers in the network.<br />• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.<br /><br />6 A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?<br /><br />RIP version 2<br />IGRP<br />EIGRP<br />• OSPF<br />BGP<br /><br />7 What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)<br /><br />30 second timer expires<br />• whenever the network topology changes<br />immediately after the Bellman-Ford algorithm has run<br />immediately after the DUAL FSM has built the topology database<br />• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol<br /><br />8 What is the final step in the link state routing process?<br /><br />successors are placed into the routing table<br />• SPF computes best path to each destination network<br />LSPs are flooded to all neighbors to converge the network<br />DUAL algorithm is run to find best path to destination networks<br /><br />9<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?<br /><br />sends out its updated routing table to both ORL and BOS routers<br />• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS<br />queries BOS to see if it has a better route<br />only adds it to the local routing table and performs no other actions<br /><br />10 What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)<br /><br />• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors<br />• all routers in the area have identical link state databases<br />LSPs use the reserved multicast address of 224.0.0.10 to reach neighbors<br />routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)<br />Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is the protocol used by for the delivery and reception of LSPs<br /><br />11 Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?<br /><br />routing table<br />adjacency table<br />• link-state database<br />neighbor table<br />topology database<br /><br />12<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?<br /><br />BOS -> ATL because this path is the least hops<br />BOS -> ATL because this path is highest cost<br />• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost<br />traffic would load balance across all links<br /><br />13 What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?<br /><br />• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas<br />assigning lower process priorities to route calculations<br />using update timers to restrict routing updates<br />strict split horizon rules to reduce routing table entries<br /><br />14 What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?<br /><br />• updates triggered by network changes<br />updates sent at regular intervals<br />updates sent only to directly connected neighbors<br />updates that include complete routing tables<br /><br />15 Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?<br /><br />DUAL<br />• Dijkstra<br />Bellman-Ford<br />Diffie-Hellman<br /><br />16 What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)<br /><br />The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.<br />Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.<br />• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.<br />• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.<br />Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.<br /><br />17<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?<br /><br />A and E<br />• B and C<br />A, B, C, and E<br />C only<br /><br />18 Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)<br /><br />RIPv1<br />RIPv2<br />• IS-IS<br />BGP<br />EIGRP<br />• OSPF<br /><br />19 When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?<br /><br />every 30 seconds<br />every 180 seconds<br />after the holddown time expires<br />• when a link goes up or down<br />when a routing loop occursUnknownnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4748240269342203689.post-1147966373402814242009-10-18T10:19:00.000-07:002009-10-18T10:20:01.005-07:00CCNA 2 Module 9 Version 4.0 Answers1 What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)<br />put the route into passive mode<br />*query neighbors for a new route<br />search routing table for a feasible successor<br />run the SPF algorithm to find a new successor<br />*search topology table for a feasible successor<br /><br />2<br /><br />Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to<br />enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)<br />R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128<br />R1(config-router)# auto-summary<br />* R1(config-router)# no auto-summary<br />* R2(config-router)# no auto-summary<br />R2(config-router)# auto-summary<br />R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64<br /><br />3<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between<br />hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful.<br />However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the<br />most likely cause of this problem?<br />IP classless is enabled and is causing the packet to drop.<br />*The command network 192.168.1.32 was not issued on router C.<br />The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.<br />Automatic summarization of the networks is causing the subnetted routes to be dropped.<br /><br />4<br />What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)<br />*the routing protocol<br />*the feasible distance of the route<br />the highest cost of the route<br />the SRTT value for the route<br />*the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router<br />the physical address of the gateway interface<br /><br />5<br />On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?<br />routing table<br />neighbor table<br />*topology table<br />adjacency table<br /><br />6<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?<br />*the route is in a stable state<br />the route is a preferred route<br />DUAL is searching for a better route to this destination<br />the exit interface is in passive mode and EIGRP advertisements are blocked<br /><br />7<br />In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?<br />specifies the administrative distance for all EIGRP routes<br />*identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise<br />determines what metric is added to all advertised routes<br />indicates the number of addresses in the EIGRP routing domain<br /><br />8<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?<br />the route metric that is applied to those EIGRP routes for this router<br />the trustworthiness of the routing information source<br />the composite of the hop count and bandwidth to that destination network<br />*the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor<br /><br />9 Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)<br />*EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.<br />*EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.<br />EIGRP is classified as a link-state routing protocol.<br />EIGRP uses TCP for reliable delivery of EIGRP update packets.<br />With EIGRP, loop-free paths are achieved through the use of hold-down timers.<br />EIGRP sends a periodic update every 30 minutes.<br /><br />10<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send<br />to Router1 and Router3?<br />a query for network 192.168.0.0/28<br />an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9<br />an update packet that is sent to 255.255.255.255<br />a packet that contains the new routing table for R2<br />*unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1<br /><br />11<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32<br />network on router A?<br />network 192.168.1.0<br />network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0<br />network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3<br />*network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.7<br />network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.255<br /><br /><br />12 What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source<br />external to the autonomous system?<br />1<br />5<br />70<br />90<br />*170<br />190<br /><br />13 In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination?<br />(Choose two.)<br />*routing<br />*topology<br />neighbor<br />path<br />shortest path<br /><br />14 Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)<br />*routes learned from other routing protocols<br />routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers<br />any route with a hop count metric higher than 224<br />*EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems<br />all passive routes in the routing table<br /><br />15 Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a<br />common routing policy to the Internet?<br />*autonomous system<br />contiguous networks<br />process ID<br />BGP<br /><br />16<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are c<br />on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?<br />A route to network 198.18.1.0/24 is not listed in the routing table.<br />*Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.<br />EIGRP will perform equal cost load balancing across two paths when forwarding packets to 198.18<br /><br />17<br /><br />The router with interface 172.16.3.2 is a successor for network 198.18.1.0/24.<br />Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the example<br />Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what<br />packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?<br />*A,B,E<br />A,C,E<br />A,D,E<br />Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,C,E paths.<br />Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,D,E paths.<br />Packets will load balance across the A,C,E and A,D,E paths.<br /><br /><br />18<br />By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?<br />MTU<br />load<br />*delay<br />*bandwidth<br />reliability<br /><br />19<br />Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?<br />Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.<br />*Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.<br />The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.<br />Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.<br /><br />20<br />The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor<br />route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the<br />primary route to this network fails?<br />The router sends query packets to all EIGRP neighbors for a better route to network 192.168.1.0/24.<br />The DUAL FSM immediately recomputes the algorithm to calculate the next backup route.<br />Packets that are destined for network 192.168.1.0/24 are sent out the default gateway instead.<br />*The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.<br /><br />21<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with<br />adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)<br />*The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.<br />Automatic summarization was disabled.<br />The hello timer for R1 was altered.<br />*The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.<br />No feasible successors were found.<br /><br />22<br /><br />Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not<br />forming an adjacency. What is the cause?<br />one router is a non-cisco router<br />* they have different autonomous-system numbers<br />they are using difference sequence numbers<br />they are sending incorrect hello typesUnknownnoreply@blogger.com1